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Sep
20
comment Why is the participle ὢν in John 9:25 translated into English as past tense?
@swasheck: Interesting! Can you provide some examples that he cites? I'd like to take a look and investigate. Thanks!
Sep
20
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
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Sep
20
comment What does “Grace upon grace” mean?
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Sep
18
comment What is meant by “…all sins and blasphemies will be forgiven them.”
@Marc: While I may be a Catholic, and I take it you are as well, I can't agree with your remarks about Christ being "locally present in heaven and not here for us to interact with and personally acknowledge our repentance." (1) Christ is God, and God is omnipresent. (2) We have the Spirit of Christ dwelling in us (cp. Rom. 8:9). (3) Regarding the Father, Jesus said to his apostles (which applies to each individual Christian), "...we (Jesus and the Father) will come to him (each Christian) and make our dwelling with him." (John 14:26)
Sep
18
comment What is meant by “…all sins and blasphemies will be forgiven them.”
The idea of repentance ("confession") for the sins is likely implied.
Sep
17
comment In Ephesians 2:2, to what or whom does “the authority of the air” refer?
1 Thes. 4:17: Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air (ἀέρα): and so shall we ever be with the Lord. Kinda' shoots down your theory, doesn't it?
Sep
16
comment Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
What about יִפָּרֵד and וְהָיָה?
Sep
16
comment What is the title above all titles in Philippians 2:9-11?
I would suggest that κύριος Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς in Phil. 2;11 be translated as "Jesus Christ is Yahveh" and not merely "Jesus Christ is Lord." Then we can understand the import of Paul's statement. Remember, κύριος was written as the Greek translation of the Hebrew אֲדֹנָי (adonai), which itself was spoken by Jews whenever they read the Tetragrammaton יהוה in the Tanakh. So, in reality, Paul is saying, "...every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Yahveh, to the glory of God the Father." What name is above every other name? Yahveh, of course, as that is God's name.
Sep
15
comment Galatians 2:16: is it really “not by works but by faith”?
Yes, ἐὰν μὴ does mean "except," but the English translation in question isn't necessarily wrong. It's all a matter of how you're reading the "but," as the conjunction "but" may be used as "except" or it can be used adversatively ("on the contrary; but rather; yet"). See dictionary.com entry #1 and #2.
Sep
10
comment Why did Jesus request silence in Mark 8:30 and Luke 9:21?
christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/…
Sep
8
comment Is there an allusion to Psalm 22 in John 19:30, ‘It is finished’?
Maybe delete the unnecessary rants and the extraneous and irrelevant information regarding מלאך. ?
Sep
7
comment Does God have regret or not in 1st Samuel 15?
And what basis does Stern have for translating them differently when the verbs are conjugated in the same binyan?
Sep
7
comment Is there an allusion to Psalm 22 in John 19:30, ‘It is finished’?
Were you responding to the appropriate question? If so...what?
Sep
4
comment Is there an allusion to Psalm 22 in John 19:30, ‘It is finished’?
It would be interesting although of minimal importance to know how the Peshitta translated the Greek into Syriac
Sep
4
comment Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?
@Dan: It seems plausible, yet the same phenomenon occurred with the names of other feasts, such as τὰ ἐγκαίνια (John 10:22) which is plural (for Channuka, i.e. the feast of Dedication).
Jul
4
comment Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?
Thus, it means that the wives' venerable conversation is "with reverence" (for their husbands; cp. Eph. 5:33). The idea is that women are to submit themselves to their husbands (v. 1) so that if any husband does not obey the word, those husbands will be won over by their own wives' conduct wherein the wives submit to and reverence their husbands (as the word commands them to do). Basically, when someone who is not obeying the word sees a Christian obeying the word, they are convicted and corrected by the Christian's holy conduct.
Jul
4
comment Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?
To note, יִרְאָה and its Greek equivalent φόβος, while they can simply mean "fear," may also mean "reverence." Thus, "fear Yahvheh" doesn't just mean be afraid of Yahveh, but reverence Yahveh. Likewise, the apostle Paul in Eph. 5:33 doesn't want wives to fear their husbands, but reverence them. In 1 Pet. 3:2, because ἐν φόβῳ is sandwiched within τὴν [ἐν φόβῳ] ἁγνήν ἀναστροφὴν ὑμῶν, it evidently modifies τὴν ἁγνήν ἀναστροφὴν ὑμῶν ("your venerable conduct") and not the aorist participle ἐποπτεύσαντες.
May
26
comment Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
That's an unusual understanding of Titus 3:5.
May
19
comment 1st Thessalonians 4:13-14: “those who sleep in Jesus”
The translation of "in Jesus" seems untenable. I can't imagine why anyone would prefer to translate διὰ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ as "in Jesus." Anyone? Is there a basis for that elsewhere in the NT?
May
13
comment What is the ‘Wisdom of God’ in Luke 11:49?
Although it's a different genre of NT literature, 1 Cor. 1:24 identifies Jesus Christ as the "wisdom of God."