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Jan
23
comment 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
Interesting suggestion. :) Are there any sources which support your assertion?
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
I don't get it. The Greek texts of Acts 2:17 and Joel 2:28 do not match, so how can Acts 2:17 be a quotation of Joel 2:28 (which you said it was)?
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
"The text in Acts 2:17 is a quotation of the Septuagint version of Joel 2:28." <----- Clearly it's not as the LXX of Joel 2:28 is different than the Greek text of Acts 2:17. Even your post demonstrates that. Acts 2:17: ἐν ταῖς ἐσχάταις ἡμέραις vs. Joel 2:28 LXX: μετὰ ταῦτα.
Jan
20
comment Was Elijah REALLY taken to Heaven?
Re: John 3:13, see this thread on Christianity.SE.
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
What time period is meant by the phrase "up to the fourth century"?
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
You also wrote, "Christian authors, including Origen, Epiphanius, and Victorinus quote Mark 1:1 without “son of God” before the fourth century." Epiphanius didn't live before the fourth century; he lived from approximately 310–320 – 403 according to Wikipedia. That is during the fourth century, and also, Epiphanius wrote, "ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου," thus omitting Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ("of Jesus Christ").
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
English translation: "Wherefore Mark also says: "The beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; as it is written in the prophets." Latin text: Propter hoc et Marcus ait: Initium Evangelii Jesu Christi Filii Dei, quemadmodum scriptum est in prophetis:
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
No Christian author quotes Mark 1:1 with “son of God” before the fourth century. <- This is a false statement. Irenaeus quotes it in his Adversus Haereses ("Against Heresies"), Book 3, Ch. 16, §3.
Jan
19
comment Is “you” in plural or in singular in Gen. 3:3?
@fdb: You could cite a reference grammar that demonstrates how a verb in 3mp is supposed to be conjugated (i.e., the ending).
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
This is a complex answer. For more information, the reader may wish to review Constantin Tischendorf's critical apparatus on p. 214. It is two pages long.
Jan
14
comment John 1:35: Who were the two disciples of John the Baptist?
Hey, if you quote Alford and Chrysostom, you're gonna' get awarded best answer from me. :)
Jan
13
comment Meaning of Ezekiel 5:8
@Blessed Geek: Would you like to make a question? I'm sure it would receive a lot of attention and answers.
Jan
12
comment Is there a way to express monotheism in hebrew language?
@Jim Thio: Actually, technically it's monotheistic. It doesn't say there are other gods, which would be henotheism. It simply says Yahveh is Israel's god. Taken at face value, it only speaks of one god: Yahveh. Nothing more. In fact, the Bible never actually says other gods exist, unless you consider demons to be gods. Some do. But, if we take god = creator, there is only one, and can be only one. There must be a first mover, someone/thing which existed and created everything else. And that first mover must be inherently eternal. Creation has to begin somewhere, at some point.
Jan
12
comment Is there a way to express monotheism in hebrew language?
@JimThio: Fair enough. (Doesn't mean there are actually other gods, though...)
Jan
11
comment What does 'prayers' mean in 1 Timothy 2:1 as distinct from supplications, intercessions, and thanksgivings?
Witsius' answer makes sense to me. A lot of sense. You didn't have to accept it if you didn't think it was best answer. I was just wondering how I could improve it. But thanks anyway. It's appreciated.
Jan
10
comment What does 'prayers' mean in 1 Timothy 2:1 as distinct from supplications, intercessions, and thanksgivings?
Can you give me a recommendation on my answer? Is it verbose?
Jan
10
comment John 1:16: What is “the fullness” (τὸ πλήρωμα) that was received by the author of the fourth gospel?
I would like to award you a best answer. But, I need to you somehow someway connect "God's unlimited grace" to "his fullness." I understand the commentary in your Bible is making that claim, but they too must have a basis on which they make the claim. I'd like to know the basis. If they cannot connect the dots, then I have to question their interpretation. The best answer will show the work.
Jan
10
comment John 1:16: What is “the fullness” (τὸ πλήρωμα) that was received by the author of the fourth gospel?
Can you elaborate how you came to the concusion that "'fullness' is a quantification of God's unlimited grace"?
Jan
10
comment John 1:16: What is “the fullness” (τὸ πλήρωμα) that was received by the author of the fourth gospel?
You're so right. Can't believe I missed the ἐκ. I need some coffee. :( Let me edit the original post.
Jan
10
comment Is there a way to express monotheism in hebrew language?
I take it you're questioning my translation? Have a peek at the article I hyperlinked.