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Feb
26
comment 2 Tim. 1:12: παραθήκην v. 2 Tim. 1:14: παρακαταθήκην
"...as God takes care of that which the writer has deposited with him..." - Don't you mean "that which Timothy has deposited with him (God)"?
Feb
19
comment Comparing a portion of 2 Peter 3:4 to a portion of John 19:25
I think the latter is an attributed genitive, not genitive of apposition.
Feb
18
comment Comparing a portion of 2 Peter 3:4 to a portion of John 19:25
I realize you have expressed knowledge in Greek grammar, so the elementary knowledge which I shared is more for the audience who reads your post, not necessarily for yourself.
Feb
18
comment Does Acts 13:33 refer to the “eternal generation” of the Word?
πρωτόγονος, πρωτογενής, πρωτογέννητος, πρωτότοκος, and πρωτοφυής are all synonymous, meaning "first-born" or "first-begotten." See pp. 8-9 of this paper. And it says "first-born" ("first-begotten") from the dead (ἐκ τῶν νεκρῶν), which is an obvious reference to his resurrection from the dead. –
Feb
18
comment Does Acts 13:33 refer to the “eternal generation” of the Word?
"Begetting is not an obvious metaphor for resurrection." Are any metaphors obvious? In any case, begetting and resurrection are linked in quite a few verses, for example, Rev. 1:5 where Jesus is referred to as the "firstborn from the dead."
Feb
18
comment Does Acts 13:33 refer to the “eternal generation” of the Word?
The "greater context" of what?
Feb
17
comment What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?
Here is the URL to my paper, which has all the footnotes and better formatting: simply-a-christian.com/discourse/…
Feb
15
comment 2 Tim. 1:12: παραθήκην v. 2 Tim. 1:14: παρακαταθήκην
I'm curious what their general meaning is, and with that in mind, what exactly are each referring to? The same thing? Different things?
Feb
15
comment Do 2nd Peter 3:12 and Amos 5:18 contradict each other in their advice in regard to the day of God?
του θεου is either "the god" or "God," but not simply the anarthrous and miniscular "god."
Feb
14
comment Does 2 Tim.1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus is already dead?
"it doesn't seem to me that praying for mercy for one already dead would fit with Paul's theology." Begging the question. Nice try though. :)
Feb
14
comment How many times does the Hebrew word הֵילֵל (heilel) occur in the Masoretic text?
What about Eze. 21:12 (21:17 in Masoretic)?
Feb
11
comment How many times does the Hebrew word הֵילֵל (heilel) occur in the Masoretic text?
"If this word stems from יָלַל (and therefore would not be הֵילֵל as noted in the Masoretic Text)..." Care to explain why the word stemming from יָלַל couldn't be הֵילֵל as noted in the Masoretic text?
Feb
11
comment In John 14:2, what is Jesus' Father's house?
Yes, but you have not connected John 2:19 with John 14:2.
Feb
10
comment Why do English translations sometimes, but not always, transform names instead of just transliterating them?
@Susan: The [entire] topic would make for an interesting thesis, don't you think? :)
Feb
7
comment What is “sin that leads to death” in 1 John 5:16?
You know what? You do have a good point. Revise your answer to incorporate your comment, and you may have people +1 instead of -1 your answer.
Feb
7
comment What is the accurate meaning of κεφαλὴ (kephalē) in 1 Cor 11:3?
"If it means "Authority Over", it is against trinity." - No, it's not. In the Trinity, there is an equality of nature, not position. A son is subordinate to his father, whether his father be God or a man in nature. For this reason, in the Trinity, the Father sends the Son, and not vice-versa.
Jan
27
comment Is there any reason to think that Mark 7:19 has a later addition?
αφεδρων means intestines?
Jan
24
comment What does it mean to be “born of water”?
@MatthewMiller: "Though Nicodemus translates the word as “a second time,” the word also means “from above.” It is this later interpretation, which Jesus seems to intend." <---- Problem is, Jesus and Nicodemus like communicated in Aramaic, although the words would later be translated and recorded into Greek for a Gentile audience (in the Gospel of John). That being said, there's no Aramaic word that has the double meaning which ἄνωθεν does. Thus, instead of assuming Jesus meant "born above," why not believe what Nicodemus heard? That is, Jesus said "born again," only he meant spiritually.
Jan
23
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
You're assuming the author "intentionally altered the text." For heaven's sake, you've not even proven that. Just say, "Perhaps the author was paraphrasing Joel 2:28." Or perhaps you can show me your obvious proof that the apostle Peter intentionally altered Joel 2:28 instead of just paraphrasing it off the top of his head.
Jan
23
comment How is an “accursed” life different from a normal life?
Can you cite an instance in the LXX where anathema means "something dedicated to evil and thus accursed"?