| bio | website | ateret-tiferet.com |
|---|---|---|
| location | United States | |
| age | 32 | |
| visits | member for | 6 months |
| seen | 19 hours ago | |
| stats | profile views | 9 |
Currently reading: Augustine, De Trinitate
My website "Ateret Tiferet" launched 02-23-2013. Please come visit! Send me an e-mail and let me know what you think (see the "Support" link in the website's navigation bar).
What is my religious affiliation?
I am Jewish by birth (this is not the religious affiliation), Christian by faith (this is the religious affiliation). Very simple.
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Apr 23 |
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What is the status of the Law in the Messianic Age? @Monica Cellio: The Messianic age has arrived, for Christians. The apostles believed they were living "in the last days" (be'acharit ha-yamim), and Kimchi says that the last days refers to the days of the Messiah. |
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Apr 22 |
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Genesis 23 — Why does the Bible change the spelling of Ephron's name? I'm familiar with Akiva's reasoning. Doesn't necessarily mean it's valid. But, to each his own. I guess it all makes for interesting midrash. |
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Apr 22 |
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Genesis 23 — Why does the Bible change the spelling of Ephron's name? I personally wouldn't think anything of it. I mean, sometimes "David" is spelled with the yod (דויד), and sometimes without it (דוד). And, yod is a mater lectionis just like vav. |
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Apr 16 |
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Are kruvim also angels? @Monica Cellio: I will do so. |
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Apr 16 |
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Are kruvim also angels? Well, what I meant was, are kruvim also mal'akhim? Thing is, if I asked that, many people do not know what mal'akhim are. They are only familiar with its common (albeit not only) English translation, "angels." I am aware that not all mal'akhim are spiritual messengers of God (what we normally refer to as "angels"). Yes, indeed, many mal'akhim in scripture are simply human beings delivering a message on behalf of another individual. |
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Apr 11 |
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What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma? @itpastorn: It wouldn't be worthwhile to compare Tanakh vs. NT because Hebrew lacks a neuter gender, while Greek does not. |
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Apr 11 |
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What does “put the branch to their nose” in Ezekiel 8:17 mean? This is actually one of the tikkun soferim. Originally, it is said to have been written "My nose" (i.e., God's nose) rather than "their nose." Radak's commentary: רוצה לומר אפי, אלא שכנה הכתוב והוא אחד משמונה עשרה מלין שהם תיקון סופרים. |
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Apr 3 |
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Genesis 3:12: What is the underlying Hebrew word translated into English as “with me” (in KJV)? @NoamSienna: That doesn't seem to be the standard. וַיִּקָּחֶהָ in Genesis 8:9, meaning "and he took her." No mappik. There are many, many other such examples. |
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Apr 3 |
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Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources? I've not searched for such files before. I wish I could be of more help. |
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Apr 3 |
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What does Genesis 3:16 literally say? Well, Hebrew, just like English, Greek, and pretty much every language, conjugate verbs in 1st person, 2nd person, and 3rd person, as well as singular number and plural number. Hebrew also conjugates them according to the gender of the subject. In any case, search "Biblical Hebrew Grammar" on Amazon. There's one by Gary Pratico (?) that's decent. |
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Apr 2 |
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Genesis 3:12: What is the underlying Hebrew word translated into English as “with me” (in KJV)? @MonicaCellio: I noticed the ה at the end of נָתַתָּה. That's not the actual 2ms form. It has a pronominal suffix at the end of it. The regular form is נתת. But, consider Deut. 26:10: הָאֲדָמָה אֲשֶׁר־נָתַתָּה לִּי ("of the land which You gave to me"). The feminine suffix at the end of נָתַתָּה corresponds back to הָאֲדָמָה. So, it is redundant, but that's Hebrew. Literally, it says, "...of the land which you gave it to me." We wouldn't say that in English, but it's a Semiticism. |
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Mar 31 |
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Did Jephthah actually sacrifice his daughter? God did not command many things. People still did them. |
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Mar 30 |
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What is the status of the Law in the Messianic Age? "Messiah's Torah" --- think of "the Law of Christ" in the New Testament. |
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Mar 26 |
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God's speech in Job 38-42 Very interesting. |
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Mar 25 |
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Where did that camel come from? The needle doth not go that high. :) |
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Mar 23 |
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Are Psalms 23 and 24 both by David according to their prefixes? לדוד can mean either "for David," or "David's." Like you, I'd go with the latter. |
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Mar 22 |
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When did separation between Israel and Judah happen? @Sergey: Can you supply a verse for further examination? The unified kingdom was known as "Israel" before the split, and there was also the individual land and tribe of "Judah." So both names existed before the split. |
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Mar 22 |
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Are Psalms 23 and 24 both by David according to their prefixes? A phrase search reveals that each occurs in numerous chapters, so both are common, and I wouldn't really think anything of it. |
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Mar 20 |
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Blessed is the man who WALKS NOT or HAS NOT WALKED? Thanks for your insight Noam. |
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Mar 19 |
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Did King Ahaz find a virgin mother? There's no explicit use of the demonstrative adjective. It simply says הָעַלְמָה (ha-almah), "the maiden" (or "the virgin," depending on which translation you prefer). And, he is a prophet, so in theory, he could very well speak of something or someone using a definite article or even a demonstrative adjective and yet they could be unfamiliar to him. The Holy Spirit is speaking through the prophet. |