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Oct
12
comment What is the meaning of the symbols that appear in the text of the Hebrew Bible?
Also related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/17531/…
Oct
11
comment “You will have delivered your soul” in Ezekiel 3
Related: Combinations of the verb נָצַל and the noun נֶפֶשׁ.
Oct
6
comment What does ἐκ μέρους mean in 1 Corinthians 13:9-10?
@ThaddeusB: I'll review all answers tomorrow and award the bounty.
Oct
5
comment How to reconcile Luke 2:11 and Acts 2:36?
ὁ λόγος οὗτός ἐστιν σκληρός, ναί? :)
Oct
5
comment How to reconcile Luke 2:11 and Acts 2:36?
Scripture makes it plainly evident when and how the Lord Jesus was anointed. See Acts 10:38.
Oct
5
comment Does Mark 5:27-28 contain an allusion to Malachi 4:2?
@Susan: Take a look at LSJ's entry on πτέρυξ, A, II, (1): "in pl.,= πτερύγια"
Oct
5
comment Does those who obey him just mean believe (not reject him) in Hebrews 5:9
Belief entails obedience. One cannot claim to believe in Jesus if they don't obey his commandments. He is our master; we are his slaves/servants, which means we must submit to his will in our lives. ὑπακούω occurs in Heb. 5:9 and also Heb. 11:8, where it says that Abraham obeyed God commandments.
Oct
5
comment Does Mark 5:27-28 contain an allusion to Malachi 4:2?
@Susan: See Num. 15:38. πτερύγια, which may indeed mean "wings," can also refer to the "borders" of a garment. Upon these borders, the Israelites placed "fringes." When she touched his garment, she may have touched the borders thereof, and thus the fringes. However, Mal 4:2 wouldn't mean "with healing in his fringes," but "with healing in his borders" (in the border of his garment).
Oct
3
comment Who is the “man of lawlessness” in 2 Thess 2?
Gents, let the votes speak for themselves. We all know the comments aren't that necessary. :)
Oct
3
comment What does 'love in the Spirit' mean in Colossians 1:8?
@WoundedEgo: Wallace, Greek Grammar, p. 247, "There is no need for the article to be used to make the object of a preposition definite... Thus, when a noun is the object of a preposition, it does not require the article to be definite: if it has the article, it must be definite; if it lacks the article, it may be definite." In this case, although the Greek lacks the definite article, the apostle Paul is evidently talking about "the Holy Spirit" and not "a holy spirit." Thus, the translators rightly supplied the definite article in English.
Oct
3
comment What does the 'body of flesh' mean in Colossians 2:11?
The apostle Paul is awesome.
Oct
2
comment Exodus 21:24 - “Eye for an eye…hand for hand…foot for foot”
Fixed the question. I added, "Does the Law of Moses stipulate what would occur..." That allows for a definitive "yes" or "no" answer.
Oct
2
comment What does the 'body of flesh' mean in Colossians 2:11?
Note the textual variant in the Textus Receptus: τοῦ σώματος τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν τῆς σαρκός.
Oct
2
comment God and angels in Job 4:18 and 15:15
Because He created them, and therefore, they are still His servants and His angels. God still uses them for His purposes. Is not Satan a fallen angel, and yet God uses him in that very book to test Job, right?
Oct
2
comment God and angels in Job 4:18 and 15:15
The assumption is that the verse is referring to good angels as opposed to bad angels (cp. 2 Pet. 2:4).
Sep
29
comment Did Joseph of Arimathaea beg for or boldly request Jesus' body from Pilate?
"αἰτέω can simply mean "to ask for." - Please cite a lexicon to support your assertion. While hyperlinking lexicons is certainly helpful as long as the website is accessible, if and when a URL goes down, it's useless. Just a thought.
Sep
22
comment John 1:49 - What is the basis for Nathanael's proclamation - “Rabbi, You are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!”?
Why did he say such a thing based on what Jesus previously said to him?
Sep
22
comment In Mark 3:11-12, who or what are τὰ πνεύματα τὰ ἀκάθαρτα and are they visible and/or audible?
@WoundedEgo Luke 8:2 equates the two (evil spirit = demon). Note, I said "evil spirit" in the OT, not "unclean spirit."
Sep
22
comment In Mark 3:11-12, who or what are τὰ πνεύματα τὰ ἀκάθαρτα and are they visible and/or audible?
@WoundedEgo There is demon possession in the OT. Anywhere you see "evil spirit," well, that's a demon. It's noteworthy that "evil spirit" also occurs in the New Testament where one would be hard-pressed to deny it's referring to a demon. See the occurrences [here] ("evil spirit") and [here] ("evil spirits").
Sep
22
comment In Mark 3:11-12, who or what are τὰ πνεύματα τὰ ἀκάθαρτα and are they visible and/or audible?
@WoundedEgo: Edited to include the answer to the additional question.