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Jul
4
comment Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?
Thus, it means that the wives' venerable conversation is "with reverence" (for their husbands; cp. Eph. 5:33). The idea is that women are to submit themselves to their husbands (v. 1) so that if any husband does not obey the word, those husbands will be won over by their own wives' conduct wherein the wives submit to and reverence their husbands (as the word commands them to do). Basically, when someone who is not obeying the word sees a Christian obeying the word, they are convicted and corrected by the Christian's holy conduct.
Jul
4
comment Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?
To note, יִרְאָה and its Greek equivalent φόβος, while they can simply mean "fear," may also mean "reverence." Thus, "fear Yahvheh" doesn't just mean be afraid of Yahveh, but reverence Yahveh. Likewise, the apostle Paul in Eph. 5:33 doesn't want wives to fear their husbands, but reverence them. In 1 Pet. 3:2, because ἐν φόβῳ is sandwiched within τὴν [ἐν φόβῳ] ἁγνήν ἀναστροφὴν ὑμῶν, it evidently modifies τὴν ἁγνήν ἀναστροφὴν ὑμῶν ("your venerable conduct") and not the aorist participle ἐποπτεύσαντες.
Jun
15
comment Luke 10:18 Satan's Name?
@CuriousGeorge - Re: the Hebrew translation - the words are backwards.
May
26
comment Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
That's an unusual understanding of Titus 3:5.
May
19
comment 1st Thessalonians 4:13-14: “those who sleep in Jesus”
The translation of "in Jesus" seems untenable. I can't imagine why anyone would prefer to translate διὰ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ as "in Jesus." Anyone? Is there a basis for that elsewhere in the NT?
May
13
comment What is the ‘Wisdom of God’ in Luke 11:49?
Although it's a different genre of NT literature, 1 Cor. 1:24 identifies Jesus Christ as the "wisdom of God."
Mar
31
comment Are the twenty-four elders of Revelation 4-5 angels or humans?
@JesusSaves: That all depends on which Greek manuscript your English translation is based upon.
Mar
25
comment 1 Cor. 2:1 - μαρτύριον v. μυστήριον
One of the best answers I've seen on the forum. Glad to have you here with us!
Mar
24
comment Why doesn’t the Septuagint include the characterization of Isaac as Abraham’s “only son”?
Also noteworthy are Aquinas' and Symmachus' translations, found here (p. 37).
Mar
23
comment Does the past tense in the suffering servant song (Isaiah 53) refer to Jesus?
@BruceJames: It's a general statement. After all, Sefer Mikhlol is a grammar, as you know, not a commentary on any particular book of the Tanakh.
Mar
17
comment Jerome's translation of κοινωνία in the Vulgate of 1 Cor. 10:16
Wow, that is one insanely expensive tome. :)
Mar
16
comment Why does the Greek Septuagint of Genesis 34:3 refer to Dinah as a virgin?
@AdithiaKusno: No, not really, as an equivalent phenomenon as vav-consecutives does not exist in Koine Greek, or any other language that I know of, for that matter.
Mar
14
comment Why is “bloods,” translated as “blood,” in Genesis 4:10?
As Susan noted. Such Semiticisms were common, even being carried over into Greek (cp. αἱμάτων in John 1:13).
Mar
12
comment Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?
This is an inaccurate assessment of the LXX. The LXX has: (68:18 KJV) ἀνέβης εἰς ὕψος ᾐχμαλώτευσας αἰχμαλωσίαν ἔλαβες δόματα ἐν ἀνθρώπῳ καὶ γὰρ ἀπειθοῦντες τοῦ κατασκηνῶσαι κύριος ὁ θεὸς εὐλογητός (68:19 KJV) εὐλογητὸς κύριος ἡμέραν καθ᾽ ἡμέραν κατευοδώσει ἡμῖν ὁ θεὸς τῶν σωτηρίων ἡμῶν διάψαλμα. Not only is the LXX not an exact translation of the Hebrew (because the Greek word εὐλογητὸς occurs twice, while the Hebrew word בָּרוּךְ only occurs once), but εὐλογητὸς actually occurs before κύριος like it does everywhere else in the LXX, contra its position in Rom. 9:5 (after θεὸς).
Mar
11
comment Colossians 2:16 speaks of holy days, festivals or weekly sabbaths?
Pagan new moons? You do realize that the Jews observed Rosh Chodesh, i.e., the beginning of the month marked by the new moon, right?
Mar
7
comment What is the difference between a soul blessing and a person blessing?
I'm glad I could help. :)
Mar
7
comment The Correct Meaning of Genesis 6:3 - Also Flesh or Is Flesh?
Did Mr. Cassuto write in English or Hebrew?
Mar
5
comment What does the abbreviation “Tg. Ps.-J” mean?
English translation of Ps. J. and Onkelos on the Torah available here; Aramaic texts of the targumim are available at the Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon as well as from Logos.com and other e-retailers.
Feb
27
comment Shema and Psalms 110: Is Mark making a case for Jesus' divinity?
"In the first scene, Jesus quotes Deuteronomy 6:4-5 which says there is only one Lord (κυριος)." <- I don't think the Greek says that. It makes no sense for English translators to translate it as "one Lord" since "Lord" is really the Tetragrammaton when you examine the Hebrew. So, does saying "one Yahveh" make any sense? Give this informative article a read.
Feb
27
comment Why did Judas betray Jesus WITH A KISS?
"But it's clearly strange for someone who is acting as enemy and not a friend." <- It is true that Jesus knew that Judas would betray him (probably because Jesus was God). However, I don't recall scripture suggesting that Judas knew that Jesus knew that he (Judas) would betray him. So, there would have been no reason for Judas to have acted as an enemy when he didn't know that Judas suspected him to be an enemy. Instead, he attempted to act like a friend, because he thought Jesus didn't know any better.