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bio website simply-a-christian.com
location United States
age 33
visits member for 2 years, 2 months
seen 25 mins ago

Jewish by birth (never religiously), baptized as an infant in the Roman Catholic Church, but just now preparing to be confirmed and have my first communion.

I recently completed some papers which are available on the Articles section of my website. Let me know what you think (contact@simply-a-christian.com).

  1. The First Day of the Week in the New Testament
  2. An Exegesis of John 3:3: "You Must Be Born Again"
  3. An Exegesis of 2 Tim. 1:16-18: The Case of Onesiphorus – a Proof of Prayer for the Dead
  4. A Discourse on the Greek Word μονογενής
  5. The Translation of the Phrase וְלֹא יָסָפוּ in Num. 11:25
  6. The Translation of the Hebrew Verb פָּסַח in Consideration of Contextual Usages

4h
comment Is there any reason to think that Mark 7:19 has a later addition?
αφεδρων means intestines?
20h
comment Psalm 23, “…table in the presence of my enemies…”
Please edit your post to include the verse number of the Bible passage in question, as well as the actual text of the verse.
Jan
24
comment What does it mean to be “born of water”?
@MatthewMiller: "Though Nicodemus translates the word as “a second time,” the word also means “from above.” It is this later interpretation, which Jesus seems to intend." <---- Problem is, Jesus and Nicodemus like communicated in Aramaic, although the words would later be translated and recorded into Greek for a Gentile audience (in the Gospel of John). That being said, there's no Aramaic word that has the double meaning which ἄνωθεν does. Thus, instead of assuming Jesus meant "born above," why not believe what Nicodemus heard? That is, Jesus said "born again," only he meant spiritually.
Jan
23
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
You're assuming the author "intentionally altered the text." For heaven's sake, you've not even proven that. Just say, "Perhaps the author was paraphrasing Joel 2:28." Or perhaps you can show me your obvious proof that the apostle Peter intentionally altered Joel 2:28 instead of just paraphrasing it off the top of his head.
Jan
23
comment How is an “accursed” life different from a normal life?
Can you cite an instance in the LXX where anathema means "something dedicated to evil and thus accursed"?
Jan
23
comment How is an “accursed” life different from a normal life?
The Greek here is anathema which in the Septuagint and the New Testament had a specific meaning of "something dedicated to evil and thus accursed." <---- Source?
Jan
23
comment 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
As far as the LXX, it uses ἐπὶ before each, and the Vulgate uses super before each.
Jan
23
comment 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
Interesting suggestion. :) Are there any sources which support your assertion?
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
I don't get it. The Greek texts of Acts 2:17 and Joel 2:28 do not match, so how can Acts 2:17 be a quotation of Joel 2:28 (which you said it was)?
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
"The text in Acts 2:17 is a quotation of the Septuagint version of Joel 2:28." <----- Clearly it's not as the LXX of Joel 2:28 is different than the Greek text of Acts 2:17. Even your post demonstrates that. Acts 2:17: ἐν ταῖς ἐσχάταις ἡμέραις vs. Joel 2:28 LXX: μετὰ ταῦτα.
Jan
20
comment Was Elijah REALLY taken to Heaven?
Re: John 3:13, see this thread on Christianity.SE.
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
What time period is meant by the phrase "up to the fourth century"?
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
You also wrote, "Christian authors, including Origen, Epiphanius, and Victorinus quote Mark 1:1 without “son of God” before the fourth century." Epiphanius didn't live before the fourth century; he lived from approximately 310–320 – 403 according to Wikipedia. That is during the fourth century, and also, Epiphanius wrote, "ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου," thus omitting Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ("of Jesus Christ").
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
English translation: "Wherefore Mark also says: "The beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; as it is written in the prophets." Latin text: Propter hoc et Marcus ait: Initium Evangelii Jesu Christi Filii Dei, quemadmodum scriptum est in prophetis:
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
No Christian author quotes Mark 1:1 with “son of God” before the fourth century. <- This is a false statement. Irenaeus quotes it in his Adversus Haereses ("Against Heresies"), Book 3, Ch. 16, §3.
Jan
19
comment Is “you” in plural or in singular in Gen. 3:3?
@fdb: You could cite a reference grammar that demonstrates how a verb in 3mp is supposed to be conjugated (i.e., the ending).
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
This is a complex answer. For more information, the reader may wish to review Constantin Tischendorf's critical apparatus on p. 214. It is two pages long.
Jan
14
comment John 1:35: Who were the two disciples of John the Baptist?
Hey, if you quote Alford and Chrysostom, you're gonna' get awarded best answer from me. :)
Jan
13
comment Meaning of Ezekiel 5:8
@Blessed Geek: Would you like to make a question? I'm sure it would receive a lot of attention and answers.
Jan
12
comment Is there a way to express monotheism in hebrew language?
@Jim Thio: Actually, technically it's monotheistic. It doesn't say there are other gods, which would be henotheism. It simply says Yahveh is Israel's god. Taken at face value, it only speaks of one god: Yahveh. Nothing more. In fact, the Bible never actually says other gods exist, unless you consider demons to be gods. Some do. But, if we take god = creator, there is only one, and can be only one. There must be a first mover, someone/thing which existed and created everything else. And that first mover must be inherently eternal. Creation has to begin somewhere, at some point.