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bio website simply-a-christian.com
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visits member for 1 year, 11 months
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Jan
30
comment What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?
Davïd, just fyi, your answer was superb. I might not mention that in the future for all your answers, but just to let you know, you consistently supply great answers. As for these texts, you may (or may not) agree that the Jews have a long oral tradition. Now, it's certainly a possibility that this notion of "three worlds" was invented after the first millennium, but it may just as well have been passed down for millennia. I do believe Philo and Heb. 1:2 share much, much, MUCH in common. I'll have to see if he mentions anything about multiple worlds. :)
Jan
30
answered What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?
Jan
29
revised What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?
added 48 characters in body
Jan
25
answered Numeral system in the time of the Genesis
Jan
24
comment Internal Evidence of Authorship of the Fourth Gospel
The question is more concerned with internal evidence identifying the author as a certain "John," not simply the beloved disciple. I believe all conservative Christians agree that the beloved disciple wrote it or had a hand in writing it.
Jan
23
asked Internal Evidence of Authorship of the Fourth Gospel
Jan
23
comment Was there precedent for John to link the satan and the serpent?
I will try to get to this later today, God willing. :)
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
In Devarim Rabba 11, Sama'el is called "the wicked" (הרשע). Sounds more like the Christian idea of Satan than the Orthodox Jewish one.
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
he.wikisource.org/wiki/…
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
As for fallen angels, you must be kidding to deny that. Pirkei deRabbi Eliezer, Ch. 22: The angels who fell from their holy place in heaven saw the daughters of the generations of Kayin walking about naked, with their eyes painted like harlots, and they went astray after them, and they took wives from amongst them, as it is said (Gen. 6:2), "And the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair, and they took them wives of all whom they chose."
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
As for identifying Sama'el as Satan, and thus, both as the serpent, see simply-a-christian.com/blog/….
Jan
22
awarded  Nice Answer
Jan
21
awarded  Quorum
Jan
21
answered Why are “Judah” and “Israel” distinguished in many verses?
Jan
21
revised Why are “Judah” and “Israel” distinguished in many verses?
added 304 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
Jan
19
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
Yeah, @GoneQuiet, sure...Jews just call him Sama'el, but still believe he is a fallen angel. Good try though. :)
Jan
18
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
King of Tyre? I thought it was about the king of Babylon (cp. Isa. 14:4: עַל־מֶלֶךְ בָּבֶל)?
Jan
16
revised What is the meaning of Luke 23:31?
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Jan
16
comment Why did not the Apostle Paul ever say “In the name of him who says” (i.e., Heb. be-shem omro)?
You were spot on in #3. Well done.
Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
Yeah, I'm aware...but it also happens in 1 Kings 1:8, 1:10 with Natan (נְבִיָא), as well as 1 Kings 1:22-23, 1:32, 1:34, etc. In fact, it seems to be the norm. :) Surely, the targumist doesn't mean "a prophet" in all those passages where the Hebrew clearly means "the prophet." Thoughts?