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Jan
23
comment 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
Interesting suggestion. :) Are there any sources which support your assertion?
Jan
22
asked 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
I don't get it. The Greek texts of Acts 2:17 and Joel 2:28 do not match, so how can Acts 2:17 be a quotation of Joel 2:28 (which you said it was)?
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
"The text in Acts 2:17 is a quotation of the Septuagint version of Joel 2:28." <----- Clearly it's not as the LXX of Joel 2:28 is different than the Greek text of Acts 2:17. Even your post demonstrates that. Acts 2:17: ἐν ταῖς ἐσχάταις ἡμέραις vs. Joel 2:28 LXX: μετὰ ταῦτα.
Jan
21
revised In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
added 18 characters in body
Jan
21
answered In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
Jan
21
reviewed Reject What does it mean to be “born of water”?
Jan
21
answered What is the meaning of this part of 2 Timothy 1:3?
Jan
21
revised What is the meaning of John 4:24?
edited title
Jan
20
comment Was Elijah REALLY taken to Heaven?
Re: John 3:13, see this thread on Christianity.SE.
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
What time period is meant by the phrase "up to the fourth century"?
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
You also wrote, "Christian authors, including Origen, Epiphanius, and Victorinus quote Mark 1:1 without “son of God” before the fourth century." Epiphanius didn't live before the fourth century; he lived from approximately 310–320 – 403 according to Wikipedia. That is during the fourth century, and also, Epiphanius wrote, "ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου," thus omitting Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ("of Jesus Christ").
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
English translation: "Wherefore Mark also says: "The beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; as it is written in the prophets." Latin text: Propter hoc et Marcus ait: Initium Evangelii Jesu Christi Filii Dei, quemadmodum scriptum est in prophetis:
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
No Christian author quotes Mark 1:1 with “son of God” before the fourth century. <- This is a false statement. Irenaeus quotes it in his Adversus Haereses ("Against Heresies"), Book 3, Ch. 16, §3.
Jan
19
comment Is “you” in plural or in singular in Gen. 3:3?
@fdb: You could cite a reference grammar that demonstrates how a verb in 3mp is supposed to be conjugated (i.e., the ending).
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
This is a complex answer. For more information, the reader may wish to review Constantin Tischendorf's critical apparatus on p. 214. It is two pages long.
Jan
17
asked 2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ
Jan
17
revised In Gal. 3:10 Is Paul trying to teach following the laws is putting a curse on you?
added 458 characters in body
Jan
17
revised In Gal. 3:10 Is Paul trying to teach following the laws is putting a curse on you?
edited body
Jan
17
answered In Gal. 3:10 Is Paul trying to teach following the laws is putting a curse on you?