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Jan
23
accepted 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
Jan
23
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
You're assuming the author "intentionally altered the text." For heaven's sake, you've not even proven that. Just say, "Perhaps the author was paraphrasing Joel 2:28." Or perhaps you can show me your obvious proof that the apostle Peter intentionally altered Joel 2:28 instead of just paraphrasing it off the top of his head.
Jan
23
comment How is an “accursed” life different from a normal life?
Can you cite an instance in the LXX where anathema means "something dedicated to evil and thus accursed"?
Jan
23
comment How is an “accursed” life different from a normal life?
The Greek here is anathema which in the Septuagint and the New Testament had a specific meaning of "something dedicated to evil and thus accursed." <---- Source?
Jan
23
comment 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
As far as the LXX, it uses ἐπὶ before each, and the Vulgate uses super before each.
Jan
23
comment 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
Interesting suggestion. :) Are there any sources which support your assertion?
Jan
22
asked 2 Sam. 2:9: אֶל and עַל
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
I don't get it. The Greek texts of Acts 2:17 and Joel 2:28 do not match, so how can Acts 2:17 be a quotation of Joel 2:28 (which you said it was)?
Jan
21
comment In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
"The text in Acts 2:17 is a quotation of the Septuagint version of Joel 2:28." <----- Clearly it's not as the LXX of Joel 2:28 is different than the Greek text of Acts 2:17. Even your post demonstrates that. Acts 2:17: ἐν ταῖς ἐσχάταις ἡμέραις vs. Joel 2:28 LXX: μετὰ ταῦτα.
Jan
21
revised In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
added 18 characters in body
Jan
21
answered In Acts 2:17 Peter says 'in the last days' but Joel (who he was quoting) had said 'Afterwards'
Jan
21
reviewed Reject What does it mean to be “born of water”?
Jan
21
answered What is the meaning of this part of 2 Timothy 1:3?
Jan
21
revised What is the meaning of John 4:24?
edited title
Jan
20
comment Was Elijah REALLY taken to Heaven?
Re: John 3:13, see this thread on Christianity.SE.
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
What time period is meant by the phrase "up to the fourth century"?
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
You also wrote, "Christian authors, including Origen, Epiphanius, and Victorinus quote Mark 1:1 without “son of God” before the fourth century." Epiphanius didn't live before the fourth century; he lived from approximately 310–320 – 403 according to Wikipedia. That is during the fourth century, and also, Epiphanius wrote, "ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου," thus omitting Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ("of Jesus Christ").
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
English translation: "Wherefore Mark also says: "The beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; as it is written in the prophets." Latin text: Propter hoc et Marcus ait: Initium Evangelii Jesu Christi Filii Dei, quemadmodum scriptum est in prophetis:
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
No Christian author quotes Mark 1:1 with “son of God” before the fourth century. <- This is a false statement. Irenaeus quotes it in his Adversus Haereses ("Against Heresies"), Book 3, Ch. 16, §3.
Jan
19
comment Is “you” in plural or in singular in Gen. 3:3?
@fdb: You could cite a reference grammar that demonstrates how a verb in 3mp is supposed to be conjugated (i.e., the ending).