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Dec
30
comment Times of the restitution of all things
@user2479: I wasn't delving into any sort of theology. I was going by the standard usage of the word within the context of other scriptures. You also don't need to respond to my answer. If you think my answer does the job of answering your question - whether you agree with it or not - you simply upvote it. If you think it's of low quality, then you would downvote it. But, I won't be engaging in a debate about the theology related to the answer itself; there's no point.
Dec
30
revised What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?
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Dec
30
answered What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?
Dec
30
answered Times of the restitution of all things
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: I agree with you.
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: I did translate it as "was born," right? :)
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
Christians and Jews believe that. David Kimchi was an Orthodox Jewish rabbi. The only thing I would agree with is that it speaks of Jesus. Anything but that, I consider nonsense. :)
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: I'm wondering if you actually read Radak's comment? "And you should know that it is a typical behavior of the past tense verbs in the holy language to use the past tense in place of the future tense (which is marked by the letters איתן), and this is mostly in prophecies because the matter is clear as if past, because it has already been decreed."
Dec
29
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: Yes, it is "perfect tense." The translation "was born" is fine. Biblical Hebrew verbs only have a past (some call it "perfect") and a future (some call it "imperfect"). They don't exactly correlate to English, so to think the perfect must be translated as "has been born" (like the English perfect) isn't accurate. In general, "perfect" refers to completed events, whereas "imperfect" does not (Biblical Hebrew imperfect includes English present and future tenses). And I edited my original post to include some information for you.
Dec
29
revised How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
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Dec
29
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: About the past tense of "was born" and "was given," you'd be wrong there. Let me edit my post and demonstrate why.
Dec
29
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
קָרָא שְׁמָהּ בָּבֶל - (Gen. 11:9) who called its name Bavel? Is the subject of the verb referring to a singular, masculine-gender subject, as the noun קָרָא suggests (based on its conjugation)? No, it's not. The Hebrew is understood as "its name was called (passive) Bavel." Isa. 9:6 is no different. The only difference is just that the verb is a imperfect w/ vav ha-hipukh, which effectively makes it perfect. But, in Gen. 11:9, the verb is written perfect. וַיִּקְרָא = קָרָא. No difference. Same phenomenon.
Dec
29
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: There is nothing "telling" about my choice of "and his name was called" as opposed to "and he called his name." As it stands, there is NO subject for the verb וַיִּקְרָא. To say that "פֶּלֶא יוֹעֵץ אֵל גִּבּוֹר אֲבִיעַד" is the subject but then שַׂר שָׁלוֹם is the name of the object (i.e., his name), is quite arbitrary and "telling" in its own right. I noticed that another individual said that the child could not be called "mighty God"..."Because only God is called Mighty God, and not any of God's creations." Err...that's assuming the premise that the child is NOT God.
Dec
29
revised Did Avraham marry Hagar? Did Ya'akov marry Zilpah?
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Dec
29
revised How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
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Dec
29
answered How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
Dec
27
asked Did Avraham marry Hagar? Did Ya'akov marry Zilpah?
Dec
20
revised How do we know the usage of the term Adonai in Genesis 15:2?
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Dec
20
comment Who are the people of God in Psalm 100?
That's certainly one way of reading the text. On the other hand, the person commanding (addressing) others may simply be including himself as one of the inhabitants of the earth.
Dec
20
revised Who are the people of God in Psalm 100?
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