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Jan
23
comment Was there precedent for John to link the satan and the serpent?
I will try to get to this later today, God willing. :)
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
In Devarim Rabba 11, Sama'el is called "the wicked" (הרשע). Sounds more like the Christian idea of Satan than the Orthodox Jewish one.
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
he.wikisource.org/wiki/…
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
As for fallen angels, you must be kidding to deny that. Pirkei deRabbi Eliezer, Ch. 22: The angels who fell from their holy place in heaven saw the daughters of the generations of Kayin walking about naked, with their eyes painted like harlots, and they went astray after them, and they took wives from amongst them, as it is said (Gen. 6:2), "And the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair, and they took them wives of all whom they chose."
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
As for identifying Sama'el as Satan, and thus, both as the serpent, see simply-a-christian.com/blog/….
Jan
22
awarded  Nice Answer
Jan
21
awarded  Quorum
Jan
21
answered Why are “Judah” and “Israel” distinguished in many verses?
Jan
21
revised Why are “Judah” and “Israel” distinguished in many verses?
added 304 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
Jan
19
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
Yeah, @GoneQuiet, sure...Jews just call him Sama'el, but still believe he is a fallen angel. Good try though. :)
Jan
18
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
King of Tyre? I thought it was about the king of Babylon (cp. Isa. 14:4: עַל־מֶלֶךְ בָּבֶל)?
Jan
16
revised What is the meaning of Luke 23:31?
deleted 21 characters in body
Jan
16
comment Why did not the Apostle Paul ever say “In the name of him who says” (i.e., Heb. be-shem omro)?
You were spot on in #3. Well done.
Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
Yeah, I'm aware...but it also happens in 1 Kings 1:8, 1:10 with Natan (נְבִיָא), as well as 1 Kings 1:22-23, 1:32, 1:34, etc. In fact, it seems to be the norm. :) Surely, the targumist doesn't mean "a prophet" in all those passages where the Hebrew clearly means "the prophet." Thoughts?
Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
I thought נְבִיָא was the definite form. What about, for example, the targum of 1 Sam. 22:5? It has נְבִיָא which is supposedly a translation of the Hebrew הַנָּבִיא?
Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
I knew it was written in Aramaic, but I figured (wrongly) that the definite Aramaic would be written the same as the Hebrew (because the Hebrew word ends in א). And most definite Aramaic nouns simply end in א-, not אה-. Anyway, apparently נְבִיאְתָא is the equivalent Aramaic word for "prophetess."
Jan
15
comment What does “Cursed is the man who kills his neighbour secretly.” in Deuteronomy 27:24 mean?
Can you elaborate the rationale?
Jan
14
awarded  Civic Duty
Jan
14
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
There's a ktiv v. kri variant. The ktiv (i.e., what is written) is נְבִיאָה, meaning "prophetess," but the kri (what is recited/ read) is נְבִיָּא, meaning "prophet." This also occurs in Ezra 6:14, however we find הַנָּבִיא (the prophet) elsewhere, e.g. Hag. 1:1, 1:3, etc. Also, we always find verbs conjugated in masculine-gender when the subject is Haggai. I'll let someone else answer though. :)
Jan
14
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
Well, if you have two prophets, one female and one male, and you are referring to both of them in Hebrew, you would use the masculine plural נְבִיאִים. In other words, even if a group of 100 people consisted of only 1 male, you would still address the group by a masculine (rather than feminine) plural (whether pronoun, verb, etc.).