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Feb
20
comment Does the communion cup emphasize the vessel or the drink?
@Eli Rosencruft: Per 1 Cor. 10:16, I always thought it was the כוס של ברכה.
Feb
20
comment What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God?
I don't know which is more common, but they're both definitely used. What will you be searching for exactly?
Feb
20
comment What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God?
I don't know what you just said. lol jk :)
Feb
20
comment What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God?
Talmud is replete with occurrences of שמיים being used as a name of God, as well as the other words. One example: Brakhot 33b. הכל בידי שמים חוץ מיראת שמים, that is, "Everything is in the hand of 'Heaven' except the fear of 'Heaven.' Both occurrences of 'Heaven' mean 'God.'
Feb
20
answered What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God?
Feb
20
comment What is the difference in the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God?
No, it should not be translated as "the kingdom of God is among you." Although I used to think the same thing, but it's untenable. See this article: syrcom.cua.edu/Hugoye/Vol12No2/HV12N2Ramelli.pdf. I do agree that "kingdom of God" = "kingdom of Heaven." No disputing that.
Feb
20
asked Is synoptic parallelism a valid hermeneutic?
Feb
20
comment Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
You know what it is weird though...sometimes they misunderstand him, and sometimes they know exactly what he means (cp. John 8:58-59). Odd!
Feb
20
comment Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
The reasons why they wouldn't literally mean what he said is because they're all impossible if taken literally. The Temple that took 46 years to build couldn't be built again in 3 days. Such a feat was physically impossible for that civilization. Again, it took 46 whole years to do so. Normal water doesn't give eternal life. And, a man cannot be born again a second time in his mother's womb. Those were the clues that what he said should not have been understood in a carnal or literal manner.
Feb
20
revised Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
added 245 characters in body
Feb
20
comment What does John 12:40 mean?
Honestly, I just want to know the meaning. Surely "What does John 12:40 mean?" is an appropriate question for BH.SE. :)
Feb
20
asked What does John 12:40 mean?
Feb
19
comment Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?
To all in general, as you noted, τηρήσητε is indeed in John 15:10, but it's in the protasis, not apodosis.
Feb
19
revised Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
added 570 characters in body
Feb
19
answered Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
Feb
19
accepted What does it mean when it says that Christ is “the head of the body”?
Feb
19
answered Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
You mentioned the contextual aspect. He didn't. I wanted those answering to ackowledge the textual variants which I posted and in doing so, examine the context and determine which seemed more probable. You did exactly that. You probably focused more than necessary on the textual variants...I didn't ask for which one had weightier witnesses, but that's okay 'cause you still examined the context. Thanks Dan O'Day.
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
This was an exceptional response too. I just wanted you to know that. Well done. If I could mark yours as accepted, I certainly would have done so.
Feb
19
accepted Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?