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location United States
age 33
visits member for 1 year, 5 months
seen 9 mins ago

Feb
20
asked Is synoptic parallelism a valid hermeneutic?
Feb
20
comment Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
You know what it is weird though...sometimes they misunderstand him, and sometimes they know exactly what he means (cp. John 8:58-59). Odd!
Feb
20
comment Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
The reasons why they wouldn't literally mean what he said is because they're all impossible if taken literally. The Temple that took 46 years to build couldn't be built again in 3 days. Such a feat was physically impossible for that civilization. Again, it took 46 whole years to do so. Normal water doesn't give eternal life. And, a man cannot be born again a second time in his mother's womb. Those were the clues that what he said should not have been understood in a carnal or literal manner.
Feb
20
revised Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
added 245 characters in body
Feb
20
comment What does John 12:40 mean?
Honestly, I just want to know the meaning. Surely "What does John 12:40 mean?" is an appropriate question for BH.SE. :)
Feb
20
asked What does John 12:40 mean?
Feb
19
comment Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?
To all in general, as you noted, τηρήσητε is indeed in John 15:10, but it's in the protasis, not apodosis.
Feb
19
revised Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
added 570 characters in body
Feb
19
answered Why does everyone in John misunderstand Jesus?
Feb
19
accepted What does it mean when it says that Christ is “the head of the body”?
Feb
19
answered Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
You mentioned the contextual aspect. He didn't. I wanted those answering to ackowledge the textual variants which I posted and in doing so, examine the context and determine which seemed more probable. You did exactly that. You probably focused more than necessary on the textual variants...I didn't ask for which one had weightier witnesses, but that's okay 'cause you still examined the context. Thanks Dan O'Day.
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
This was an exceptional response too. I just wanted you to know that. Well done. If I could mark yours as accepted, I certainly would have done so.
Feb
19
accepted Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
Feb
19
comment What does it mean to convict the world concerning righteousness?
Check out Isa. 11:2-4. I believe there is a strong connection there. Also, Isa. 2:4.
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
Understood. Thanks.
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
Good point on Rev. 14:3.
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
@Dan O'Day, so, you believe ἡμᾶς is contextually more probably although "the majority of witnesses have αὐτούς"? I understand I asked you about context alone, so consider this a tangential question that I was interested in asking of you.
Feb
19
accepted In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?
Feb
19
revised Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
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