7,141 reputation
1132
bio website simply-a-christian.com
location United States
age 33
visits member for 2 years, 2 months
seen 24 mins ago

Jewish by birth (never religiously), baptized as an infant in the Roman Catholic Church, but just now preparing to be confirmed and have my first communion.

I recently completed some papers which are available on the Articles section of my website. Let me know what you think (contact@simply-a-christian.com).

  1. The First Day of the Week in the New Testament
  2. An Exegesis of John 3:3: "You Must Be Born Again"
  3. An Exegesis of 2 Tim. 1:16-18: The Case of Onesiphorus – a Proof of Prayer for the Dead
  4. A Discourse on the Greek Word μονογενής
  5. The Translation of the Phrase וְלֹא יָסָפוּ in Num. 11:25
  6. The Translation of the Hebrew Verb פָּסַח in Consideration of Contextual Usages

Jan
20
comment Was Elijah REALLY taken to Heaven?
Re: John 3:13, see this thread on Christianity.SE.
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
What time period is meant by the phrase "up to the fourth century"?
Jan
20
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
You also wrote, "Christian authors, including Origen, Epiphanius, and Victorinus quote Mark 1:1 without “son of God” before the fourth century." Epiphanius didn't live before the fourth century; he lived from approximately 310–320 – 403 according to Wikipedia. That is during the fourth century, and also, Epiphanius wrote, "ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου," thus omitting Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ("of Jesus Christ").
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
English translation: "Wherefore Mark also says: "The beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; as it is written in the prophets." Latin text: Propter hoc et Marcus ait: Initium Evangelii Jesu Christi Filii Dei, quemadmodum scriptum est in prophetis:
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
No Christian author quotes Mark 1:1 with “son of God” before the fourth century. <- This is a false statement. Irenaeus quotes it in his Adversus Haereses ("Against Heresies"), Book 3, Ch. 16, §3.
Jan
19
comment Is “you” in plural or in singular in Gen. 3:3?
@fdb: You could cite a reference grammar that demonstrates how a verb in 3mp is supposed to be conjugated (i.e., the ending).
Jan
19
comment Was υἱοῦ θεοῦ a latter addition to Mark 1:1?
This is a complex answer. For more information, the reader may wish to review Constantin Tischendorf's critical apparatus on p. 214. It is two pages long.
Jan
17
asked 2 Cor. 10:4: Translation/Understanding of δυνατὰ τῷ θεῷ
Jan
17
revised In Gal. 3:10 Is Paul trying to teach following the laws is putting a curse on you?
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Jan
17
revised In Gal. 3:10 Is Paul trying to teach following the laws is putting a curse on you?
edited body
Jan
17
answered In Gal. 3:10 Is Paul trying to teach following the laws is putting a curse on you?
Jan
16
revised Does Romans 2:22 refer to temple robbery or sacrilege?
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Jan
16
answered Does Romans 2:22 refer to temple robbery or sacrilege?
Jan
16
asked Heb. 11:17: Why προσενήνοχεν, first, and then shortly thereafter, προσέφερεν?
Jan
14
accepted John 1:35: Who were the two disciples of John the Baptist?
Jan
14
comment John 1:35: Who were the two disciples of John the Baptist?
Hey, if you quote Alford and Chrysostom, you're gonna' get awarded best answer from me. :)
Jan
14
revised In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?
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Jan
14
revised In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?
added 508 characters in body
Jan
14
revised In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?
added 508 characters in body
Jan
14
answered In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?