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Oct
28
comment Who is the God of God in Psalm 45:8?
Are you asking about the translation? Or the interpretation?
Oct
23
comment Judges 17:7 - How could the young man be both “a Levite” and “of the family of Judah”?
"This is certainly how the author/redactor, who put these apparent contradictions within the same verse, intended it to be understood." I believe that's the question at hand and is not so certain.
Oct
23
revised Judges 17:7 - How could the young man be both “a Levite” and “of the family of Judah”?
edited body
Oct
23
comment Judges 17:7 - How could the young man be both “a Levite” and “of the family of Judah”?
Your explanation would definitely explain the significance of the phrase "...of Beit-Lechem of Yehuda..." It means he lived in Beit-Lechem, a city of Yehuda. However, it fails to explain the significance of the phrase "...of the family of Yehuda..." This implies descent from the tribe of Yehuda, and tribal descent is only derived paternally. Same as being a Levite. So, how could this man be a Levite (from his father) and also of the family of Yehuda (likewise from his father)? That's the question. Now, if you can provide a scripture that proves mishpocha is also used of land, that helps.
Oct
15
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
If you are referring to ὀ and ὁ, yes, both are omicrons.
Oct
15
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
This is omicron: ο. This is omega: ω.
Oct
14
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
ὁ is the Greek letter omicron. Omega is ω. Yes, each has a different diacritic. It would be ho theos, with a rough breathing before the ὁ (which is what that diacritic signifies). ὀ would be without rough breathing.
Oct
11
comment Is the “captain of the Lord's host” an angel or God Himself?
Interesting take...the hornet aspect. :)
Oct
11
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
@Jim Thio: ὁ is simply the definite article, equivalent to the English word "the." The exact pronunciation of ו varies depending on dialect and era. Today, most would pronounce it as a voiced labio-dental fricative (IPA: /v/)and transliterate it into English as "v." However, in antiquity, some say it was pronounced as a labio-velar approximant (IPA: /w/) and, as such, it would be transliterated into English as "w." As I mentioned, it also functioned as a vowel. So, it could represent a "u" (it is then called shuruk), or it could represent a "o" (it is then called cholam male), וּ and וֹ, resp.
Oct
11
reviewed Edit suggested edit on Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
Oct
11
revised Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
Rewrite for clarity etc
Oct
11
revised Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
added 557 characters in body
Oct
11
answered Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
Oct
10
accepted Hebrews 9:12 - Did Jesus Christ offer his blood in heaven?
Oct
8
comment Land of Moriah or Mount Moriah?
As an aside, why is the definite article prefixed to moriyah? That's not normal, is it?
Oct
6
revised What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'?
added 2 characters in body
Oct
4
revised Hebrews 9:12 - Did Jesus Christ offer his blood in heaven?
deleted 20 characters in body
Oct
4
asked Hebrews 9:12 - Did Jesus Christ offer his blood in heaven?
Sep
27
comment Is there an issue with translating the word “worshiped” in Matthew 14:33?
@Jack Douglas: I see what you mean. Yes, it does have other senses outside the NT. I thought you meant its usage in the NT. That being said, no, I don't think there's a word in the Koine Greek language that is only used for worship due to God.
Sep
27
comment Is there an issue with translating the word “worshiped” in Matthew 14:33?
@Ali: If by "answerer," you mean me, then no, I don't believe it's necessary to edit my answer to reflect that, as the original question didn't ask about other words, but instead, about "this word" translated as "worship" in Matt. 14:33. That Greek word was προσκυνέω.