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Dec
23
answered Did Jesus read minds or perceive them?
Dec
22
awarded  greek
Dec
22
awarded  hebrew
Dec
21
awarded  Custodian
Dec
21
revised Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
added 104 characters in body
Dec
21
asked Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
Dec
21
awarded  Custodian
Dec
21
reviewed No Action Needed *Two* miraculous catches of fish in John 21 and significance?
Dec
21
comment “A god” or “God” in John 1:1?
@Wayne: Does "through" change that fact that the Word cannot be created since everything that was made (i.e., every creature) was made through him? If the Word is a creature, how could he have created himself through himself if he had yet to be created?
Dec
20
comment Authorship of the LXX of Psa. 24:1
Possibly. I don't think there's a way to know. I suppose the original question I asked remains unanswerable, then.
Dec
20
revised Luke 22:38 - ἱκανόν ἐστιν - Does it mean, “It is enough” or “Enough!”
added 758 characters in body; edited tags
Dec
20
asked Authorship of the LXX of Psa. 24:1
Dec
20
answered Linking NT Greek to Hebrew through the LXX
Dec
17
comment Why does God seek to kill Moses in Exodus 4:24
See Keil & Delitzsch on Exo. 4:24. studylight.org/commentaries/kdo/view.cgi?bk=1&ch=4
Dec
17
comment What is the significance of 2nd John being addressed to the “elect lady”?
"would this also be used for example as to allowing women to be Elders in a church?" I don't see why. It doesn't say the "elect lady" (Ἐκλεκτῇ κυρίᾳ) is an elder (πρεσβύτερος), but rather, the author is. In case you are interested, see p. 181 (in the book). simply-a-christian.com/texts/Henry_Alford/…
Dec
17
comment Was Jesus’ commandment to “love enemies” (Matthew 5:43) meant literally?
Is there another way to interpet the commandment to love our enemies?
Dec
16
comment Ezekiel 16:4 - Why were babies rubbed with salt?
You might be interested: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/27336/…
Dec
8
comment Accurate translation of חֶמְדַּ֣ת in Haggai 2:7
I like the diagrams. Very nice. :)
Dec
6
comment What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?
A source to back up your assertion that τελειόω is a synonym?
Dec
5
comment How to save Paul from the Galatians 3 “seed” vs “seeds” argument blunder?
Actually, you are mistaken. The plural for זֶרַע can be found in the word זַרְעֵיכֶם in 1 Sam. 8:15. The inclusion of the י makes it plural. It means "your (pl.) seeds (pl.)." Obviously, זֶרַע is more commonly used as a collective plural, but still, זֶרַע does have a plural form found in scripture. You may now step down from your pedestool. By the way, is not a feminine noun, so it's not זרעות, but זרעים.