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| visits | member for | 6 months |
| seen | Mar 6 at 1:09 | |
| stats | profile views | 1 |
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Mar 2 |
comment |
Does Genesis contain a “death sandwich”? More importantly, a secular researcher applied the same techniques to the novel "Moby Dick" and got the same results. Which is to say when it comes to these things the old aphorism of science applies: "If you torture the data long enough, it will confess." |
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Feb 6 |
comment |
How authentic is Codex Sinaiticus? @NoahSnyder yes you are right, I forgot the details of the Q hypothesis, it is a Matthew-Luke thing, but I think most Bible fundamentalist scholars believe in the theory of theopneustos, God-breathed 2Tim 3:16, which seems to be rather challenged by your idea of Matthew being an enhancement of Mark. But I'll grant you that opinions on what exactly the pneustos referred to means, and to where it falls in the spectrum of "robotic transcription" to "guided by divine principles." I wouldn't mention it, but I think it only fair to Mawia to say that many serious scholars disagree with your view. |
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Feb 6 |
comment |
How authentic is Codex Sinaiticus? FWIW, I don't agree with your assessment of the ubiquity of this opinion @NoahSnyder. Definitely there is a whole movement called "Higher Criticism" that advocates for something like this view (more specifically that Mark and Matthew have a common source document called "Q") nonetheless there are many academics that do not hold that view, and most evangelical, Bible believing pastors do not either. In my opinion the idea is pretty much eviscerated in Josh McDowell's "More Evidence that Demands are verdict" that addresses this subject, along with the similar JEDP hypothesis. But YMMV. |
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Feb 5 |
answered | How authentic is Codex Sinaiticus? |
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Feb 4 |
revised |
Should the title in Isaiah 9 be translated? added 438 characters in body |
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Jan 29 |
comment |
Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28? Thanks for the compliment @swasheck. And I also appreciate your opinion that you aren't a fan of this answer. However, you don't state any specific concerns with it so I don't really understand your concern. I have spent a considerable amount of time understanding what the Bible says about sexuality, and I think that the answer above is an important one, because there are a lot of very wrong attitudes to sexuality that come from cultural biases and not from the Bible. Nonetheless, you'll have to be more specific in your criticism for me to understand your concerns. |
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Jan 28 |
answered | Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28? |
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Jan 28 |
answered | What distinguishes an excellent concordance? |
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Jan 25 |
comment |
Based on recent manuscript discoveries, is the LXX more reliable than the MT? At your request Monica, I have added a link in the body of the text above to more information. |
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Jan 25 |
revised |
Based on recent manuscript discoveries, is the LXX more reliable than the MT? added 130 characters in body |
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Jan 24 |
answered | Based on recent manuscript discoveries, is the LXX more reliable than the MT? |
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Jan 24 |
comment |
Is the ending of the Gospel of Mark (16:9-20) original? BTW, as a general comment, the "Textual Commentary" by Metzger et al. really is the go to source for this kind of question. It is a detailed analysis of the choices made in Nestle And Aland, the Greek text which is used in the standard UBS text, and also is the basis for pretty much all modern translations. Every serious scholar of the Greek New Testament should have a copy of this book to accompany N&A. It is cheap and easy to use. It is available on Amazon for $25. (I'd recommend an edit to the above to include a link to the book on Amazon.) |
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Jan 23 |
awarded | Commentator |
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Jan 23 |
comment |
Is Jesus called God in 2 Thessalonians 1:12? FWIW, Granville Sharp's rule (though I'd rather call it his observation) is an extremely subtle thing with a lot of associated caveats. Even the original caveats are not, in my opinion, sufficient as they stand. The best known example being LXX Pro 24:21, but there are also other more violent exceptions in the profane Greek corpus. Readers should remember that no such rule existed in any Greek grammar before the 18th century, and the "rule" was certainly unknown to early Koine speaking grammarians. Which isn't to dismiss some of the great insights Sharp had of course. |
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Jan 23 |
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Is Jesus called God in 2 Thessalonians 1:12? @Luke thanks for you comment, however, I think the interpretation of Titus 2:13 is rather different than you suggest. However, this comment section is not the place to put such an answer. If you post it as a question, I'd be happy to give my input on the matter. FWIW, hemon in Greek applies to that which precedes not to that which follows as "our" does in English, so hemon in Titus refers to "our savior" not, grammatically speaking anyway, to "Jesus Christ." |
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Jan 8 |
comment |
Are kruvim also angels? Something that always amused me about the KJV is that it translates this as "cherubims" using both the Hebrew and English plurals in the same word. Other versions use just "cherubim", though it seems to me that "cherubs" would be a better choice -- though it seems to convey a different meaning somehow. |
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Jan 4 |
awarded | Student |
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Jan 4 |
asked | Pi in the Bible |
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Jan 3 |
comment |
How did the shadow move back ten steps in 2 Kings 20:8-11? FWIW, there are probably many simpler ways to make the shadow go back than causing the earth to spin in the other direction (something that would probably have brought the building down and most likely end all life on earth.) A shadow is simply a light phenomenon. Block out the sun with a dark cloud and provide another light source in a different position, for example, or some sort of rain cloud causing a localized refraction effect, bending the shadow. |
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Jan 2 |
answered | What's the root definition of the word “judge” in Matthew 7:1? |
