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| bio | website | area51.stackexchange.com/… |
|---|---|---|
| location | Downtown Burbank | |
| age | 39 | |
| visits | member for | 1 year, 8 months |
| seen | 12 hours ago | |
| stats | profile views | 168 |
Please consider committing to E-books and E-book Readers.
Don't have time for a full review of something? Why not try my 5-second reviews?
I'm not in the market for a new job right now, but you can read about what I've done over the years in my curriculum vitae.
On a personal note, I'm married and have three children. Two of my children happen to have been born on the same day. I sometimes write about that experience.
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Oct 28 |
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Who named the wrong priest in Mark 2:26? @Ray: That, of course, also answers the question. (However, Jesus was talking about the high priest, which means one person, and referencing a story from before the First Temple. So be careful. ;-) |
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Oct 27 |
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How do you know an allegory is valid? It occurs to me that this is a very Cartesian (skeptical of tradition) answer and I don't usually take that position. Hmmmm... |
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Oct 27 |
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How do you know an allegory is valid? Excellent! (But does the KJV really use seethe rather than boil? Maybe another translation would be more applicable to the question.) |
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Oct 27 |
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Who named the wrong priest in Mark 2:26? Another data point in Mark is in 1:2 when he quotes Isaiah and Malachi, but only cites Isaiah. |
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Oct 27 |
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How do you know an allegory is valid? I know the context, but I think it would help to make it explicit. My suggestion would be to quote the passage that brought up the comment and ask if boiling can be a symbol of tribulation here. The question underneath is good, but I'm afraid the context will be missing for most readers. (I'd rather not vote to close this question, but it's a bit to specific to a particular time and place for this site as it's currently phrased.) |
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Oct 27 |
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Who named the wrong priest in Mark 2:26? @ashansky: Thanks for the pointer. I wouldn't accept the accepted answer here, however. ;-) It's a really tricky hermeneutical problem. |
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Oct 27 |
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Redaction criticism and grammatical-historical hermeneutics let us continue this discussion in chat |
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Oct 25 |
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Does the Sadducees' question in Mark 12 imply polygamy was considered sinful? Well, the Sadducees didn't believe in the resurrection at all and Moses did command remarriage, so the question seems totally benign to their system of belief. What happens after death, before and during the Resurrection was a problem for the Pharisees, not the Sadducees. Jesus' solution was likely one of several. (And I think we are once again agreeing different. ;-) |
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Oct 25 |
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Does the Sadducees' question in Mark 12 imply polygamy was considered sinful? I'm glad I asked. I'll have to re-think the passage. (But I wonder if a possible answer to the Sadducees would be that death does not annul the marriage. The first man was never "divorced" from his wife. (Jesus' response is exactly the opposite by the way.)) |
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Oct 25 |
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Does the Sadducees' question in Mark 12 imply polygamy was considered sinful? The idea to ask this came from an answer to another question. (I just wanted to establish the link. ;-) |
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Oct 25 |
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What is the difference between historical-grammatical and historical criticism? Related (but not identical) is hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/231/… My answer there would be a good place to start, in my oh-so-humble opinion. ;-) |
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Oct 25 |
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How did the Greek “charis” come to imply “favor?” Sounds plausible to me. I wonder if the book is in one of my local libraries... |
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Oct 25 |
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Are the 'ten virgins' told in Jesus' parable multiple brides or just general wedding party? s/roll/role/ (Great question, by the way. I've never thought the women could all be brides.) |
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Oct 25 |
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Is there a scriptural warrant for the literal-historical approach? I cleaned up the question a bit and suggested some links to the terms you are using. But are you asking about Biblical literalism or historical-grammatical hermeneutics. (The later seems more accepted by Christians at least.) |
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Oct 25 |
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Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught? The question sprung from a chat session. |
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Oct 25 |
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Are there scriptural standards by which a hermeneutic method can be measured? let us continue this discussion in chat |
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Oct 25 |
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Are there scriptural standards by which a hermeneutic method can be measured? I see my comment was unclear: the Sadducees accepted the first five books of the Bible (Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy). I don't dispute that Jesus could have used Scripture to answer the marriage question, but He didn't show us the reasoning for that half of His answer. As you point out, Jesus was an exceptional rabbi at a young age. How did he receive His semikhah at 12? |
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Oct 25 |
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Who wrote the hymn in Philippians 2? @Soldarnal: I was meaning to ask about that... Do you have the source for the Stephan suggestion at hand? |
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Oct 24 |
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What role does the Holy Spirit play in hermeneutics? There's an interesting thread on this question in chat. |
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Oct 24 |
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What's wrong with cooking a kid in its mother's milk? I don't have a problem with "different", but I do have a problem with asserting things that are not evident. Take "Boiling represents tribulation." Sure it can be a symbol for tribulation, but it can also mean a step in preparing food. Taken as a symbol, it could mean "purification" or "change" or "reducing" or whatever. Its fine if you don't or can't give us a clue where the interpretation comes from, but you can't expect us to understand what you are saying. (And introducing new symbols makes everything exponentially more confusing.) |
