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Jan
20
awarded  Commentator
Jan
20
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
I might also note that according to Smith (pg 314, n.94), it was Tertullian and Gregory the Great that first introduced the connection between Lk 10:18 and Isa 14:12.
Jan
20
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
Fantastic research - thank you! I would only suggest that you might add to point 2 a reference to Rev. 12:8-9, which seems to contain allusions to both Isaiah and Luke.
Jan
6
answered Why is Wisdom personified as a woman?
Jan
6
revised In Luke 1:62 it states they made signs for Zechariah but he could hear just not speak so why make signs?
added 233 characters in body
Jan
6
answered In Luke 1:62 it states they made signs for Zechariah but he could hear just not speak so why make signs?
Dec
28
awarded  Popular Question
Dec
19
accepted Was Balaam a true follower of Yahweh?
Dec
19
awarded  Nice Question
Oct
4
awarded  Yearling
Mar
16
awarded  Popular Question
Feb
16
awarded  Nice Answer
Jan
9
awarded  Critic
Jan
9
comment What does it mean that “Scripture interprets Scripture”?
Pardon my severity, but I am baffled by this answer. That final sentence is one of the most egregious examples of eisegesis that I have encountered in quite a while.
Jan
3
answered Why did Jesus' disciples believe in him after he turned water into wine?
Oct
4
awarded  Yearling
Jun
6
comment Why did God “change His mind” with Balaam?
Thanks for the thoughts. As a SW dev, I particularly appreciate your programming analogy!
Apr
6
awarded  Quorum
Apr
4
awarded  Enlightened
Apr
4
awarded  Nice Answer