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seen Oct 26 at 15:18

Sometimes you can feel proud of SO answers:

Sometimes you can only feel embarrassed at the number of votes they get:

If I've helped you and you want to say an effusive thank you, here is my Amazon wishlist. But the nicest way to say thank you is by upvoting and accepting my answers!


Oct
18
comment How does this KJV phrase change the understanding of 1 Tim 6:5?
@JonEricson From the Greek, it is much more likely that τοιουτων refers to people, given the grammar of the preceding sentence. I'll agree that it could refer to the actions, in which case you're right: it's the same as v11.
Oct
18
comment David's righteousness in the Psalms
That's as may be, but it doesn't actually demonstrate that he wrote them...
Oct
18
comment David's righteousness in the Psalms
Well, the obvious answer is that they aren't all written by David...
Oct
18
comment In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51?
I presume this is referring to "greater things than these"?
Oct
14
comment To whom was Isaiah referring in Isaiah 53?
Put it this way, I think "to whom does Isaiah 53 refer?" and "is Isaiah 53 messianic prophecy?" would be on topic.
Oct
14
comment To whom was Isaiah referring in Isaiah 53?
There are lots of scholars who would argue against the idea that the "common interpretation" is the intended one. I have heard it suggested that the character in Isaiah 53 is Zedekiah, Jeremiah, even (very fancifully) Uzziah. In general, I think your question is approaching being off-topic for a hermeneutics site...
Oct
12
comment What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7?
Put it this way, I wouldn't call that scholarship. But I'm going to leave this answer for now. I'll come back to it when I get hold of some books.
Oct
12
comment What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7?
You know, I'm not even going to touch that one.
Oct
12
comment What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7?
Three things: I have never heard any modern scholar suggest any controversy over the "three Isaiah" concept or the dating of 40-55; when Genesis was written/codified is actually more in doubt; I'm not saying that Israel was polytheistic, merely that monotheism became, in the exilic and post-exilic era, dominant in Israelite theology in a way that previously it had not been.