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seen Oct 26 at 15:18

Sometimes you can feel proud of SO answers:

Sometimes you can only feel embarrassed at the number of votes they get:

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Dec
20
comment How do we know the usage of the term Adonai in Genesis 15:2?
@Dan Of course. My comment was badly phrased...
Dec
20
comment How do we know the usage of the term Adonai in Genesis 15:2?
@Dan Well, it's in the Hebrew for a start!
Jun
17
comment Why would God disapprove of rituals he ordained?
@BruceJames That is, of course, your prerogative.
May
13
comment Why would God disapprove of rituals he ordained?
@BruceJames Leviticus (especially) and Deuteronomy (to a lesser extent) were written after much of the prophetic literature.
Mar
20
comment What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7?
@BruceJames This conversation isn't about what you or I believe: it's about what prophets of ancient Israel thought in the sixth century BCE. The idea that Israel's God was the only god and that he created everything (good and bad) were new formulations in the Exile.
Mar
20
comment What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7?
@BruceJames That passage does not say that God creates evil, which is the unusual feature of Isaiah's theology.
Dec
15
comment What translation best translates the word “vanity” (in the KJV) in Ecclesiastes?
My point is that all the meanings are relevant, which makes vanity an excellent word in the context. I don't have the resources (Hebrew OT, lexicon, commentary) to hand, so I can't accurately address the Hebrew, but I believe the word is הבל, meaning something like "breath of wind". Since it's used figuratively, I'm not sure it particularly helps to find the precise English word.
Dec
15
comment What translation best translates the word “vanity” (in the KJV) in Ecclesiastes?
The definitions are hardly unrelated, and the point in any case is that the word carries all of the meanings. Any by "the original language" do you mean the original Hebrew text?
Nov
24
comment Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
I'm interested that you quote John 1.1 without mentioning that the second word of the verse is αρχη. It rather confirms your point, I think!
Nov
18
comment Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command?
Yeah, I realise that. There's nothing in the Greek to mean "should", and if this were classical Greek that would be the end of the matter. Biblical Greek is a bit laxer on grammar, though, so it could carry a sense of "should".
Nov
18
comment Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command?
Grammatically, it's an indicative (and the subject is "sin"). I don't think that's what you're asking, though...
Nov
16
comment What did Paul mean when he said, “work out your own salvation?”
I see what you mean, but I'm not convinced the Greek verb (κατεργαζομαι) can bear that meaning. It very much has the sense of fully achieving something.
Nov
9
comment What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”?
@Richard No, I don't think "reconciliation" is a useful concept in biblical hermeneutics.
Nov
9
comment What is the referent of “body of Christ” in 1 Corinthians 11:29?
NB for precision, differentiate between "transubstantiation" and "Real Presence". They don't mean the same thing.
Nov
9
comment What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”?
Well, I think you can also make the case that Matthew clearly deliberately wrote something different to Mark. There must have been a reason he did so: you could equally well make a case that Matthew must therefore have meant something different to Mark.
Nov
9
comment What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”?
I don't think you can prove what Matthew meant by saying what Mark said.
Oct
30
comment Was Ezekiel 37 understood as a prophesy of a literal Resurrection?
Well, the whole book of Ezekiel is about exile and return, so I have difficulty reading the dry bones passage as being about anything else, particularly given the context, both ch. 36 and the passage you quote. The exile and restoration of Israel is an obvious type for death and resurrection, though – typology is probably a better use for this passage than thinking of it as literal prophecy. I'd be interested if anyone ever has considered it literally, though...
Oct
26
comment Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?
While I agree that Jesus never had any formal training as a rabbi, there are scholars who would disagree with the idea that "he was never anyone's disciple". There are those who suggest that Jesus was a disciple of John's, who began his own ministry after John's arrest. Gerd Theissen is the scholar who immediately springs to mind; there are others.
Oct
22
comment How did the Greek “charis” come to imply “favor?”
Technically speaking, a "charisma" is a God-given talent or grace. The conventional English meaning is derived from that.
Oct
19
comment Was “Τετέλεσται” actually stamped on paid bills and debt certificates in the first century?
+1 This is a really interesting and valuable answer. One thing that the paid-in-full translation misses is that the idea of τελος (from which τελεω and τετελεσται come) is actually quite an important concept in the gospels. See, for instance, John 13.1, which I read as being directly related to the final words of Jesus on the Cross.