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  • 0 posts edited
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  • 36 votes cast
Nov
9
comment What is the referent of “body of Christ” in 1 Corinthians 11:29?
NB for precision, differentiate between "transubstantiation" and "Real Presence". They don't mean the same thing.
Nov
9
comment What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”?
Well, I think you can also make the case that Matthew clearly deliberately wrote something different to Mark. There must have been a reason he did so: you could equally well make a case that Matthew must therefore have meant something different to Mark.
Nov
9
awarded  Critic
Nov
9
comment What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”?
I don't think you can prove what Matthew meant by saying what Mark said.
Oct
30
comment Was Ezekiel 37 understood as a prophesy of a literal Resurrection?
Well, the whole book of Ezekiel is about exile and return, so I have difficulty reading the dry bones passage as being about anything else, particularly given the context, both ch. 36 and the passage you quote. The exile and restoration of Israel is an obvious type for death and resurrection, though – typology is probably a better use for this passage than thinking of it as literal prophecy. I'd be interested if anyone ever has considered it literally, though...
Oct
28
awarded  Nice Answer
Oct
27
answered Why would God disapprove of rituals he ordained?
Oct
26
comment Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?
While I agree that Jesus never had any formal training as a rabbi, there are scholars who would disagree with the idea that "he was never anyone's disciple". There are those who suggest that Jesus was a disciple of John's, who began his own ministry after John's arrest. Gerd Theissen is the scholar who immediately springs to mind; there are others.
Oct
22
comment How did the Greek “charis” come to imply “favor?”
Technically speaking, a "charisma" is a God-given talent or grace. The conventional English meaning is derived from that.
Oct
19
awarded  Commentator
Oct
19
comment Was “Τετέλεσται” actually stamped on paid bills and debt certificates in the first century?
+1 This is a really interesting and valuable answer. One thing that the paid-in-full translation misses is that the idea of τελος (from which τελεω and τετελεσται come) is actually quite an important concept in the gospels. See, for instance, John 13.1, which I read as being directly related to the final words of Jesus on the Cross.
Oct
18
comment How does this KJV phrase change the understanding of 1 Tim 6:5?
@JonEricson From the Greek, it is much more likely that τοιουτων refers to people, given the grammar of the preceding sentence. I'll agree that it could refer to the actions, in which case you're right: it's the same as v11.
Oct
18
answered How does this KJV phrase change the understanding of 1 Tim 6:5?
Oct
18
answered Sense of περἰ in Romans 8:3
Oct
18
comment David's righteousness in the Psalms
That's as may be, but it doesn't actually demonstrate that he wrote them...
Oct
18
comment David's righteousness in the Psalms
Well, the obvious answer is that they aren't all written by David...
Oct
18
comment In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51?
I presume this is referring to "greater things than these"?
Oct
18
answered What translation best translates the word “vanity” (in the KJV) in Ecclesiastes?
Oct
12
comment What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7?
Put it this way, I wouldn't call that scholarship. But I'm going to leave this answer for now. I'll come back to it when I get hold of some books.
Oct
12
comment What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7?
You know, I'm not even going to touch that one.