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| bio | website | lonesomeday.wordpress.com |
|---|---|---|
| location | St. Albans, United Kingdom | |
| age | 24 | |
| visits | member for | 1 year, 7 months |
| seen | May 15 at 16:11 | |
| stats | profile views | 2 |
Sometimes you can feel proud of SO answers:
- Why should y.innerHTML = x.innerHTML; be avoided?
- Is there any way to check if bubble triggered the click?
- PHP: Convert uncommon date format to timestamp in most efficient manner possible?
Sometimes you can only feel embarrassed at the number of votes they get:
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May 13 |
comment |
Why would God disapprove of rituals he ordained? @BruceJames Leviticus (especially) and Deuteronomy (to a lesser extent) were written after much of the prophetic literature. |
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Mar 20 |
comment |
What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7? @BruceJames This conversation isn't about what you or I believe: it's about what prophets of ancient Israel thought in the sixth century BCE. The idea that Israel's God was the only god and that he created everything (good and bad) were new formulations in the Exile. |
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Mar 20 |
comment |
What did Isaiah intend with his unusual usage of “create” in Isaiah 45:7? @BruceJames That passage does not say that God creates evil, which is the unusual feature of Isaiah's theology. |
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Oct 4 |
awarded | Yearling |
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Dec 15 |
comment |
What translation best translates the word “vanity” (in the KJV) in Ecclesiastes? My point is that all the meanings are relevant, which makes vanity an excellent word in the context. I don't have the resources (Hebrew OT, lexicon, commentary) to hand, so I can't accurately address the Hebrew, but I believe the word is הבל, meaning something like "breath of wind". Since it's used figuratively, I'm not sure it particularly helps to find the precise English word. |
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Dec 15 |
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What translation best translates the word “vanity” (in the KJV) in Ecclesiastes? The definitions are hardly unrelated, and the point in any case is that the word carries all of the meanings. Any by "the original language" do you mean the original Hebrew text? |
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Nov 24 |
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Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God? I'm interested that you quote John 1.1 without mentioning that the second word of the verse is αρχη. It rather confirms your point, I think! |
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Nov 18 |
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Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command? Yeah, I realise that. There's nothing in the Greek to mean "should", and if this were classical Greek that would be the end of the matter. Biblical Greek is a bit laxer on grammar, though, so it could carry a sense of "should". |
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Nov 18 |
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Is the phrase “sin shall no longer be your master” in Romans 6:14 a command? Grammatically, it's an indicative (and the subject is "sin"). I don't think that's what you're asking, though... |
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Nov 16 |
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What did Paul mean when he said, “work out your own salvation?” I see what you mean, but I'm not convinced the Greek verb (κατεργαζομαι) can bear that meaning. It very much has the sense of fully achieving something. |
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Nov 16 |
comment |
What did Paul mean when he said, “work out your own salvation?” @Richard It's a paraphrase of Galatians 2.20. Thanks! |
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Nov 16 |
answered | What did Paul mean when he said, “work out your own salvation?” |
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Nov 9 |
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What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”? @Richard No, I don't think "reconciliation" is a useful concept in biblical hermeneutics. |
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Nov 9 |
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What is the referent of “body of Christ” in 1 Corinthians 11:29? NB for precision, differentiate between "transubstantiation" and "Real Presence". They don't mean the same thing. |
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Nov 9 |
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What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”? Well, I think you can also make the case that Matthew clearly deliberately wrote something different to Mark. There must have been a reason he did so: you could equally well make a case that Matthew must therefore have meant something different to Mark. |
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Nov 9 |
awarded | Critic |
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Nov 9 |
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What does Jesus mean in Matthew 26:64 with “You have said so”? I don't think you can prove what Matthew meant by saying what Mark said. |
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Oct 30 |
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Was Ezekiel 37 understood as a prophesy of a literal Resurrection? Well, the whole book of Ezekiel is about exile and return, so I have difficulty reading the dry bones passage as being about anything else, particularly given the context, both ch. 36 and the passage you quote. The exile and restoration of Israel is an obvious type for death and resurrection, though – typology is probably a better use for this passage than thinking of it as literal prophecy. I'd be interested if anyone ever has considered it literally, though... |
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Oct 28 |
awarded | Nice Answer |
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Oct 27 |
answered | Why would God disapprove of rituals he ordained? |
