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location Hong Kong
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visits member for 2 years, 4 months
seen Oct 16 at 13:54

I am a Canadian, married with kid, and working in Hong Kong. I usually answer posts from a reformed / protestant / evangelical perspective.

People I have encountered on this site seem to be a ‘whole bunch of good people’. Even those who sharply disagree with my own point of view.

I am a huge sinner but am happy knowing God's grace will keep me in his grip.


Jan
28
comment Under a Christian exegesis, is the promise of 'a future Prophet' Jesus, or all prophets culminating in Jesus?
@MonicaCellio - What I am thinking is that maybe the concept of many prophets was already understood, but Moses was referring to 'a' single prophet, more 'like him', i.e. founder of a covenant. Christian's can go both ways on this and I am undecided. This would then tie in with...Deuteronomy 34:10 Since then, no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face
Jan
22
comment Would it matter if the ID of 'Auctor' was revealed and who are the potential candidates?
@swasheck - btw thanks for asking the tough questions. cheers.
Jan
22
comment Would it matter if the ID of 'Auctor' was revealed and who are the potential candidates?
@swasheck - you have some good points about subjectivity. I personally find Hebrews to dig deeper than any other book, competing with Romans. I subjectively think it is the most difficult to understand not because it is unclear, or the arguments would be unclear to the Hebrews but because the subject matter is so very deep and requires deep understanding of both OT and NT. The combined knowledge in Hebrews is very intimidating. If I encountered a human with the knowledge of the author of Hebrews I would personally be in awe and would feel ignorant. I feel this way about Paul.
Jan
21
comment Would it matter if the ID of 'Auctor' was revealed and who are the potential candidates?
No, I don't think so. There has been nothing 'uncovered' just people re-hashing the same recycled arguments. Some liberal modern theologians think in that a woman wrote it, but as we enter our modern era we can only expect the more foolish conjectures.
Jan
20
comment What options did Mary have in mind with Gabriel's greeting?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - I assumed the emotion you are adding but good you mention it. She was in disbelief while reverently pondering. It was not a 'Ha, yeah right' at all. That is casual, it is more like in front of a supreme court judge that hammers the gavel in her favor and she says 'What?!' please explain. The fear provides context to the reverent disbelief.
Jan
13
comment Pre-Christian, Jewish interpretation of Psalm 22
According to Alfred Edersheim, the Jewish Historian..."Ps. 22:15 (16 in the Hebrew). There is a similarly remarkable application to the Messiah of this verse in Yalkut. The promise in Ps. 23:5 is referred in Bemid. R. to the spreading of the great feast before Israel in the latter days." It should be noted that there is never anything at stake in this type of question. I mean Christianity does not gain anything or loose anything in the answer, so when A historian like Edersheim concludes that it was, it probably was by some Rabbis. Also we can't expect every Rabbi to agree before Christ.
Jan
6
comment Is there a link between the Jewish expectation of a literal Messianic kingdom and the command to witness to the ends of the earth in Acts 1?
@Joseph - Wow, did not realize so many comments were running on this post. It seems it has even improved more. By the way your view is very traditionally accepted. Calvin said that Augustine thinks 'as the law was given to the old people fifty days after Easter, being written in tables of stone by the hand of God, so the Spirit, whose office it is to write the same in our hearts, did fulfill that which was figured in the giving of the law as many days after the resurrection of Christ, who is the true Passover.'
Jan
4
comment Is there a link between the Jewish expectation of a literal Messianic kingdom and the command to witness to the ends of the earth in Acts 1?
+1 - Great answer and a lot of positive enthusiasm. I think literal Israel will receive Christ long before the second coming, but that is way besides the point. Also to support your connection their are many proofs Jews believed Messiah's reign was to extend to the ends of the earth and nobody needed to wait for invisible power for it. Psalms 2:8 Ask of me, and I will make the nations your heritage, and the ends of the earth your possession. Excellent post! Cheers
Dec
29
comment What scripture is Paul referring to in Ephesians 5:14?
I have seen a few options and agree Isaiah 60:1-2 is the most acceptable answer.
Dec
27
comment How can Psalms 68:18 be translated as in Ephesians 4:8?
Interestingly I looked up the Romans 3:4 case and although this may be a good example, as you argue, Paul happens to be using the switch that the LXX already did. νικήσῃς ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε - to conquer when you are judged.
Dec
27
comment How can Psalms 68:18 be translated as in Ephesians 4:8?
+1 - This seems very close to the answer from Hodge I posted but I lean more to his view that the decision in this context is simply God's incarnation which parallels God coming down to Israel (although he did descend further for sure). Also that the plunder is the whole church and all the blessing he obtained for her.
Dec
27
comment How can Psalms 68:18 be translated as in Ephesians 4:8?
@MonicaCellio - The closer I read his statements I see Hodge is not really convinced of this, but I think he should have not mentioned it then. I looked myself and this does not seem tenable so I removed that part from my post. Good catch. I think it is clear he has revised the word.
Dec
21
comment The Latin word lucifer in the Vulgate
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - yes it seems I missed the 'erums' Cheers
Dec
19
comment Is the name Israel intended to be ambiguous?
@JonEricson - good pun on struggle. I think this was a fair comment so I put the horse before the cart and trimmed the cart down in size.
Dec
17
comment Why did Jesus' disciples believe in him after he turned water into wine?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - No I do not think so. Possibly 'all' signs are meant to manifest the gospel, at least indirectly, which includes the divininity of Messiah as an integral part. However the signs of Messiah would seem to me as 'all directly' manifesting himself which must include his divinity. So yes, I would think so.
Dec
6
comment Humankind divided up among the gods?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - Your right in a sense as at the time of Babylon the church was not yet called Israel, but the idea is not limited to any time frame as the boundaries of nations are maintained under the same principle as originally with respect to the sons of God, i.e primative pre-Israel church, then sons of Israel through that period, then technically determined to the highest benefit of the elect in the New Testament. So during all ages the boundaries are determined according to the size and scattered locations of the church. At least this is the view I am arguing here.
Nov
11
comment Was Jesus 'delivered from his fear' or 'delivered because he had fear' of God?
Thanks for the tip that might help me understand Owen's view. BTW Owen would never suggest the fear was fear of physical death but a serious reverence and nervous respect of taking the whole universe of sin upon his soul and to suffer the infinite wrath of God for it. If Jesus was merely afraid of death he would be more cowardly than a courageous martyr. No, the concept is that as he sweat drops of blood, ready to take on hell, his crying an tears were answered. Like I said both translations are easily defended theologically.
Nov
10
comment Was Jesus 'delivered from his fear' or 'delivered because he had fear' of God?
also Kittel admits this might be appropriate (i.e. fear of death) but them argues against it without fully showing the logic of those who take that side.
Nov
10
comment Was Jesus 'delivered from his fear' or 'delivered because he had fear' of God?
+1 for taking a stab at it. However I do not think this is a cut and dry easy answer as some very knowledgable theologians very familiar with the greek have translated this as not reverent fear of God but reverent fear of death. Eg. John Owen in his commentary of Hebrews. What I am looking for is the reason why they would translate it this way based on Greek secular usage of the word or maybe the particular order of the words together in the context? I do not know?
Oct
23
comment How can the flight to Egypt in Matthew 2:15 be a fulfillment of Hosea 11:1?
Fair enough. As nobody is perfectly objective it seems beneficial in this case to have our personal frameworks apparent. Cheers.