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May
10
comment Are there intra-textual supports for a politicized reading of Revelation?
@JonEricson - Don't know if you got around to reading this but if you have thought you might like to know a large expanded and very well argued version in four volumes is here. I am reading this and am dumbfounded on how good some of the arguments are. But you have to start atnthe beggining and let him hook you in first, then he overwhelmes with unexpected additional proofs that just get plain incredible. I wish somebody tipped me on to this a long time ago: archive.org/details/horaeapocalypt01elli
May
3
comment Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else?
@Joseph - yes. This fear is 'one' of the aspects of their slavery that Christ frees us from. It is one of those bondages that the Devil personally uses to torment those who are subject to his malicious rule.
May
2
comment Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else?
@Joseph - the Greek word fear is like the English one. It is an excited emotion when encountering a powerful force. It originated from the idea 'to flee' it easily extends to panic, or when facing God who is powerful yet loving, reverence. It does not mean subject under.
May
2
comment Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else?
@Joseph - Subjection does not change the meaning for me as that is already understood. Sinners are subject to death and subject to the fear of physical death because it is the entrance into the 'final subjection' of the second death. Same difference to me?
May
2
comment Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else?
@Joseph - I do not think this fear is anything like a holy reverent fear which makes us willingly subject to God - that is liberating fear. This is fear over physically dying (due to the final judgment) and is a tormenting fear of bondage. The two fears are almost opposites. Deliverance versus bondage. Fear of Christ delivers sinners from fear of death. One fear is replaced by a different kind of fear.
Apr
30
comment Why is the tribe of Dan missing from Revelation 7:5-8?
@DanO'Day - great that's better. Cheers.
Apr
29
comment What are the limits to the Christological hermeneutic?
I agree the hermeneutic certainly applies in this broader sense.
Apr
22
comment What is the referent of “body of Christ” in 1 Corinthians 11:29?
@Soldarnal - I think a hidden part of the exegetical decision is whether one thinks it biblical that disunity potentially triggers punishment by death or publicly disrespecting a church sacrament could potentially bring punishment by death. This assumption significantly effects our view of God's righteous judgment in setting up expected minimum standards in the New Testament.
Apr
13
comment Why does the Peshitta use the word ‘baptism’ for ‘enlightened’ in Hebrews 6:4?
I added a picture of the word enlighten to rule out a copyist mistake. It seems this it was an intentional commentary as @DanO'Day suggested.
Apr
13
comment Does Paul refer to his past or present evil/sin in Romans 7
nice stream of arguments, all going in the same direction, without anything to suggest contradiction.
Apr
13
comment How should James 2:18 be translated?
good example of 'what we are looking for in a good answer'.
Apr
11
comment Why does the Peshitta use the word ‘baptism’ for ‘enlightened’ in Hebrews 6:4?
+1 - Interesting .. I looked up 10:32 and Peshitta also used 'baptism' there. Maybe the Syriac copiests identified 'knowledge of the truth' as synonomous with baptism? or maybe the words do look alike? Good question.
Apr
8
comment To what degree is understanding the feelings of a biblical author necessary in exegesis?
Ok - thanks for the clarification that does clarify. Cheers.
Apr
7
comment To what degree is understanding the feelings of a biblical author necessary in exegesis?
I thought that's what you implied ++1. Cheers
Apr
7
comment To what degree is understanding the feelings of a biblical author necessary in exegesis?
Think you misunderstand the confession. Definition from reformed dictionary: 'Passion implies desire for what one does not have. But God, as an absolutely perfect Being, lacks nothing. ... Therefore, God is completely and infinitely satisfied in his own perfection. However, to say that God is impassable in the sense that he has no passions or cravings for fulfillment is not to say that he has no feelings. God feels anger at sin and rejoices in righteousness. But God’s feelings are unchanging. ... Thus, God has no changing passions, but he does have unchanging feelings.
Apr
7
comment To what degree is understanding the feelings of a biblical author necessary in exegesis?
I like your balance emphasis and also the growth emphasis. The romanticist is an interesting term. I am actually thinking more along the lines that the author is God. Maybe there is a term like spiritualist hermeneutics? In this sense reverence, peace, joy, etc. would be necessary to have a mind capable of understanding the author. Proper emotion can create sudden realizations. That is often when we understand, as our emotions fill out our thoughts into panoramic views. This of course also captures our will, for our whole person recognizes what is being said in concurrence.
Apr
7
comment To what degree is understanding the feelings of a biblical author necessary in exegesis?
Some good lines of thought. Wonder how it plays out when God is considered the author?
Mar
23
comment What does “likewise” connect to in Romans 8:26?
+1 - for an excellent explanation of v23
Mar
17
comment Before the Tower of Babel did all speak Hebrew as the original human language?
Maybe that is what confused me. Now I see whatmyou are arguing. You are imagining Moses had scriptures handed down to him. I have assumed Moses wrote Gensis without anything prior written. I suppose this is really a unknown. Cheers.
Mar
17
comment Before the Tower of Babel did all speak Hebrew as the original human language?
I was just reviewing the answers here and was wondering what is the biblical basis that you assume Hebrew was spoken before the Tower of Babylon? I do not disagree with the conclusion but it almost seems you are thinking of some bible verse I am not thinking of? The reason why I asked about language history is because I was not aware of a biblical argument.