Mike

5,171 reputation

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I am a Canadian, married with kid, and working in Hong Kong. I usually answer posts from a reformed / protestant / evangelical perspective.

People I have encountered on this site seem to be a ‘whole bunch of good people’. Even those who sharply disagree with my own point of view.

I am a huge sinner but am happy knowing God's grace will keep me in his grip.

	5,171 reputation	bio	website		visits	member for	11 months
1219 badges		location	Hong Kong		seen	1 hour ago

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Jan 29	comment	To what extent do deductive approaches consider authorial intent? @swasheck - I don't think I disagree with any of your comments. I think I was using the term deduction and dogma slightly differently than how you are using them. I am not a fan of topical studies. What I mean is when I read a given text that might imply God is unholy I apply pressure from my faith (from texts that say he is holy) onto the difficult text, in order to help understand it. Cheers
Jan 29	comment	Why did the tabernacle use the colors blue, purple and scarlet? This is a short answer linking bruising alone to red, purple and blue, but as Christ was the tabernacle of God and his flesh was bruised and these colors are similar to bruising I think it is a excellent hypothesis (+1) I wonder if these colors can be argued to mean the same in other locations of the bible as well that would probably speak to swashek's comment? Welcome to the site!
Jan 29	comment	Under a Christian exegesis, is the promise of 'a future Prophet', Christ, or all prophets culminating in Christ? I also welcome you to the site. Cheers. By the way I can think of many multiple fulfillment references among the rabbis before Jesus. Many Psalms that had an obvious meaning in David's life were filled with messianic references and prediction in ancient rabbinic writings. Even my last question about Jacob's blessing to Judah is an example. I do not agree with the statement of invalidating future prophets by referring to a single one though. Also per your last comment although their were those in NT with prophetic gifts, formally Luke 16:16 “The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John."
Jan 28	comment	Under a Christian exegesis, is the promise of 'a future Prophet', Christ, or all prophets culminating in Christ? @MonicaCellio - What I am thinking is that maybe the concept of many prophets was already understood, but Moses was referring to 'a' single prophet, more 'like him', i.e. founder of a covenant. Christian's can go both ways on this and I am undecided. This would then tie in with...Deuteronomy 34:10 Since then, no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face
Jan 22	comment	Would it matter if the ID of 'Autor' was revealed and who are the potential candidates? @swasheck - btw thanks for asking the tough questions. cheers.
Jan 22	comment	Would it matter if the ID of 'Autor' was revealed and who are the potential candidates? @swasheck - you have some good points about subjectivity. I personally find Hebrews to dig deeper than any other book, competing with Romans. I subjectively think it is the most difficult to understand not because it is unclear, or the arguments would be unclear to the Hebrews but because the subject matter is so very deep and requires deep understanding of both OT and NT. The combined knowledge in Hebrews is very intimidating. If I encountered a human with the knowledge of the author of Hebrews I would personally be in awe and would feel ignorant. I feel this way about Paul.
Jan 21	comment	Would it matter if the ID of 'Autor' was revealed and who are the potential candidates? No, I don't think so. There has been nothing 'uncovered' just people re-hashing the same recycled arguments. Some liberal modern theologians think in that a woman wrote it, but as we enter our modern era we can only expect the more foolish conjectures.
Jan 21	comment	Why did the Law of Moses tolerate polygyny (polygamy) but not polyandry? It does not really matter to me. I just did a quick search on polygamy and this is the kind of question I think I saw. Maybe it was not closed as a dup, but then I am not sure why as it is a good question. Anyway do not really care myself. Do whatever is fine. Really ok with me. christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/11870/…
Jan 21	comment	Why did the Law of Moses tolerate polygyny (polygamy) but not polyandry? Your choice let me know. I can post a Q&A over there. I do not want to leave a hole as we have already closed a more recent version of this question as a duplicate of this and its bound to be asked over and over again.
Jan 20	comment	Why did the Law of Moses tolerate polygyny (polygamy) but not polyandry? @JackDouglas - I never thought of that actually your right it is doctrinal - should be moved to C.SE.
Jan 20	comment	Why did the Law of Moses tolerate polygyny (polygamy) but not polyandry? You sort of answered a different question. The question then asks, why did God tolerate adultery of men, but not their slaves, as both would be a sin? The question is not about status but about God's tolerance of a sin.
Jan 20	comment	What options did Mary have in mind with Gabriel's greeting? @H3br3wHamm3r81 - I assumed the emotion you are adding but good you mention it. She was in disbelief while reverently pondering. It was not a 'Ha, yeah right' at all. That is casual, it is more like in front of a supreme court judge that hammers the gavel in her favor and she says 'What?!' please explain. The fear provides context to the reverent disbelief.
Jan 13	comment	Pre-Christian, Jewish interpretation of Psalm 22 According to Alfred Edersheim, the Jewish Historian..."Ps. 22:15 (16 in the Hebrew). There is a similarly remarkable application to the Messiah of this verse in Yalkut. The promise in Ps. 23:5 is referred in Bemid. R. to the spreading of the great feast before Israel in the latter days." It should be noted that there is never anything at stake in this type of question. I mean Christianity does not gain anything or loose anything in the answer, so when A historian like Edersheim concludes that it was, it probably was by some Rabbis. Also we can't expect every Rabbi to agree before Christ.
Jan 6	comment	Is there a link between the Jewish expectation of a literal Messianic kingdom and the command to witness to the ends of the earth in Acts 1? @Joseph - Wow, did not realize so many comments were running on this post. It seems it has even improved more. By the way your view is very traditionally accepted. Calvin said that Augustine thinks 'as the law was given to the old people fifty days after Easter, being written in tables of stone by the hand of God, so the Spirit, whose office it is to write the same in our hearts, did fulfill that which was figured in the giving of the law as many days after the resurrection of Christ, who is the true Passover.'
Jan 4	comment	Is there a link between the Jewish expectation of a literal Messianic kingdom and the command to witness to the ends of the earth in Acts 1? +1 - Great answer and a lot of positive enthusiasm. I think literal Israel will receive Christ long before the second coming, but that is way besides the point. Also to support your connection their are many proofs Jews believed Messiah's reign was to extend to the ends of the earth and nobody needed to wait for invisible power for it. Psalms 2:8 Ask of me, and I will make the nations your heritage, and the ends of the earth your possession. Excellent post! Cheers
Dec 30	comment	Zechariah 9:6-7 What is the meaning of Philistine and Jebusite? It was a NIV given me from a distant relative for Christmas. I had it tucked away in my desk for a couple years before cracking it open. I did not know it had live explosives in it! :)
Dec 29	comment	What scripture is Paul referring to in Ephesians 5:14? I have seen a few options and agree Isaiah 60:1-2 is the most acceptable answer.
Dec 27	comment	How can Psalms 68:18 be translated as in Ephesians 4:8? Interestingly I looked up the Romans 3:4 case and although this may be a good example, as you argue, Paul happens to be using the switch that the LXX already did. νικήσῃς ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε - to conquer when you are judged.
Dec 27	comment	How can Psalms 68:18 be translated as in Ephesians 4:8? +1 - This seems very close to the answer from Hodge I posted but I lean more to his view that the decision in this context is simply God's incarnation which parallels God coming down to Israel (although he did descend further for sure). Also that the plunder is the whole church and all the blessing he obtained for her.
Dec 27	comment	How can Psalms 68:18 be translated as in Ephesians 4:8? @MonicaCellio - The closer I read his statements I see Hodge is not really convinced of this, but I think he should have not mentioned it then. I looked myself and this does not seem tenable so I removed that part from my post. Good catch. I think it is clear he has revised the word.