7,176 reputation
1536
bio website
location Hong Kong
age
visits member for 2 years, 1 month
seen 2 days ago

I am a Canadian, married with kid, and working in Hong Kong. I usually answer posts from a reformed / protestant / evangelical perspective.

People I have encountered on this site seem to be a ‘whole bunch of good people’. Even those who sharply disagree with my own point of view.

I am a huge sinner but am happy knowing God's grace will keep me in his grip.


Oct
9
comment What was the purpose of giving Jesus vinegar to drink?
I have looked at several old commentaries from Church Father's and they do not seem to comment that much for any help. The best I could find is that one said it was what people 'typically gave criminals'. Maybe if you include how Roman Historical books would interpret it at the time someone will dig up a good reference that would actually illuminate the subject.
Oct
9
comment Did Jesus primarily use an exegetical or hermeneutical approach in explaining the meaning of the Hebrew Scriptures?
+1. I think you hit some of the major points that needs highlighting to begin to even think of a descent answer to this. The same ideas apply to the Epistles.
Oct
8
comment What was the purpose of giving Jesus vinegar to drink?
Good question. This is not an answer as I have not dug up a reference in an early commentary but I think it was a little of both as i believe it was cheap sour wine but mostly to 'alleviate the pain'. see related post. hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/2334/…
Sep
27
comment How many people were struck dead at Beth Shemesh?
I think this is a corruption of the original text that is too deep into the Hebrew for me to understand the proposed reconstructions. I think those who can answer this question will reconstruct the original to say 70. The background pressure might be the feeling that the inhabitants would not have exceeded 50,000 and because there is textual corruption needing some kind of reconstruction. However due to the uncertainty one can probably argue the other way also.
Sep
27
comment Does Leviticus 19:28 in the original text instruct not to tattoo for the dead or not to tattoo at all?
ha! i just posted as you were, +1
Sep
8
comment How do the traditions of the LXX and MT versions of Jeremiah relate?
@Soldarnal - Yes I agree that 'during Jeremiah's lifetime' - some preliminary versions would been collected and distributed but the final version at the end of his life would have been the 'authorized' and more complete version. So yes maybe there was a short version originally written and the edited by Jeremiah later, or maybe someone made a shorter version because their copy was damaged in certain sections so they had to use what they had. Who knows? In the end I see the longer version, even if a few years older, to be the reliable one. Books collecting works of several authors are different
Sep
8
comment How do the traditions of the LXX and MT versions of Jeremiah relate?
@Soldarnal - Why would prophets just write down things in piece meal, letting nobody's assemble it into a more rational order? That actually makes prophets seem irresponsible to me. I would think the prophet would keep all sections and in order, potentially re-writing them himself or through his scribe. I tend to think editors over time reduce the quality of the original inspiration but some might think human effort eventually improves the text. This is probably the very first presupposition each side makes and your question cuts to the heart of the matter which has no provable answer.
Sep
8
comment How do the traditions of the LXX and MT versions of Jeremiah relate?
(+1) I added a long section on the Dead Sea Scrolls - thanks for clueing me in to that particular point. I still find the MT the one I trust, even more after review the Dead Sea Scroll claim but I have to say you brought more relevant info to the subject then I did on my first revision. Thanks I learned from you.
Sep
8
comment How do the traditions of the LXX and MT versions of Jeremiah relate?
@NoahSnyder - ok. that makes sense.
Sep
7
comment How do the traditions of the LXX and MT versions of Jeremiah relate?
@NoahSnyder - this is a quote and conclusion on what was learned for Jeremiah "Significance: Although some readings agree with the LXX, the order of the chapters follows the proto-MT." So it seems in the main the Dead Sea Scrolls is MT based.
Sep
7
comment How do the traditions of the LXX and MT versions of Jeremiah relate?
@NoahSnyder - actually found my answer. according to a book I have on the dead sea scrolls both LXX based fragments and MT fragments were found. In this case fragments of Chapter 25 and 26 were found in 4QJerC and chapter 46 (which the LXX puts together) was in a separate cave 2QJer. This seems to me to neither help the LXX case or weaken it. Besides the portions found are here and their so I can only imagine the speculation involved in making new generation arguments. I could be wrong just my opinion.
Sep
7
comment How do the traditions of the LXX and MT versions of Jeremiah relate?
@NoahSnyder - That is certainly relevant. Do you know if the Dead Sea Scrolls follow the arrangement that I quote above, i.e. break what appears to me as a smooth flow of thought in the MT?
Sep
4
comment What is the likely way in which ancient Hebrews would have understood “raqiya” in Gen 1:6?
Actually I really found this a difficult question and searched over 10 commentaries that did not directly answer the question to my satisfaction. I guess, yes, I arrived at the conclusion that it is slightly figurative based on a literal view of the sky. I mean it even makes sense to me today to think of the atmosphere of many arches of physical air holding up the rain, but this is not to be treated as my literal view. Actually a scientific account might not be very useful in describing what I see. cheers.
Aug
11
comment How should we contextualize Paul's “Jesus is accursed” in I Co 12:3?
@rhetorician - yes, I agree that something along that line could/would have been going on in the background which necessitated the division of true utterances and teaching from false ones, in the context of a christian gathering with various elements of sharing, singing and the freedom of various religious expressions and gifts. They needed discernment in their charismatic experience.
Aug
9
comment Why does Psalm 103:8 use the dual form of אַפַּ֣יִם (anger)?
Actually you are exactly right on track...here is a quote supporting your concept..."An idiom for anger in Hebrew is חָרָה אַף. The literal translation of חָרָה אַפּוֹ is “his nose was hot,” which is idiomatically translated “he was angry.” A related idiom is “length of nose” > “it takes a long time for one’s nose to get hot” > “patient.” (Beginning Biblical Hebrew, Mark D. Futato, P131)". I have noticed the face is related to a lot of words. Just the other day I noticed the eye is also a spring cuz a spring is round with water flowing from it.
Aug
7
comment Does Hebrews 7 claim that Yeshu'a is Malki-Tzedek?
@JoshuaUtterback - Ok , I was not aware there are some who think he was literally the pre-human form of Messiah (I can only assume that is what they propose before the incarnation) and so I grabbed a quote from Owen to show the weakness of this view... as a priest for a human must be in human form which was the point of the incarnation, that Christ might atone for human verses angelic or sins from other races or forms. Assuming then that Melchizedek was just a guy, the rest plays out naturally and fits well into the original Greek by using the word similitude or likeness not actual. cheers
Aug
6
comment What is the meaning of 'Power of the Death'?
@taurivalor - sure ok.
Aug
6
comment What is the meaning of 'Power of the Death'?
@taurivalor - Sure why not. In addition to those provided above I would starts with the obvious beginning. God said the moment Adam ate from the fruit he would die. This could not have been primarily physical (though including it) as he did not die. Also that they felt ashamed, hid from God ect., proves they did die inwardly. The bible does not treat physical death as serious as spiritual death anywhere.
Aug
3
comment Why is Daniel Chapter 2:4 - 7:28 written in Aramaic?
I like ypu last and simplets answer. Since the whole book is largley based on a vision that a Gentile King had, the use of the local language for those sections more directly related to the event in the native language of Babylon seems natural for Daniel to write in, that he might also use in own native tongue when encorporating the foreign story into the prophetic record is not hard to accept. Also, welcome to BH.SE, not everybody get's there first answer is an accepted one.
Jul
28
comment What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to?
not finding the word anywhere else does seem to indicate the possability of a misprint and the option 4 does seem to be another plausable argument, if the misprint theory was untrue.