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  • 37 votes cast
Oct
4
comment Do Acts 10 and 11 invalidate the prohibition against consuming blood?
Could you then make that statement clearly, because pardon me for my autism, I am unable to decipher that from your answer. Because I would hate to vote an answer up without knowing what it actually says. Basically, I have encountered overwhelming claims from Christians that Acts 10, 11 invalidates prohibition against eating of animal blood as well as generically (rather than ceremonially/ritualistically) unclean animals. I don't see removing blood from meat as a ritual or ceremony.
Oct
4
comment What is the significance of Acts 10:13, 11:7 “make sacrificial slaughter”
"Peter is not a Levitic priest" - doesn't Christian doctrine associate a believer to priestliness ? I was wondering if Acts 10, 11 is somehow correlated to 1 Peter 2:9.
Oct
4
comment What is the significance of Acts 10:13, 11:7 “make sacrificial slaughter”
I don't think you can connect the corollaries of a Hebrew word to a Greek word. They are not the same word. That is like equating the word murder to kill, to prohibit against eating animal meat.
Oct
4
comment Do Acts 10 and 11 invalidate the prohibition against consuming blood?
I'm still trying decipher from your answer whether and how interpretation of Acts 10, 11 would say it is alright to consume meat with its blood.
Oct
4
comment What is the significance of Acts 10:13, 11:7 “make sacrificial slaughter”
I am a novice at koine Greek, which I got a lousy C grade for introductory koine Greek in Bible school. I am wondering, what the significance is, if any. Hebrew is simpler and more exciting.
Oct
4
comment Exodus 21:24 - “Eye for an eye…hand for hand…foot for foot”
I read and understand the Bible in Hebrew.
Oct
4
comment When is the “last day” that is referred to in the book of John?
You should also include the questions asked in hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15736/…
Oct
4
comment What is the significance of Acts 10:13, 11:7 “make sacrificial slaughter”
Is the Tyson meat company named after these two verses?
Oct
4
comment Exodus 21:24 - “Eye for an eye…hand for hand…foot for foot”
It does not actually say "an eye instead of an eye" either.
Oct
4
comment Exodus 21:24 - “Eye for an eye…hand for hand…foot for foot”
Your translation has a significant defect. The passage does not say "eye for an eye", or "xxx for xxx".
Sep
30
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
Anyway, you are downvoting to disagree that - One verse says that the LORD would punitively cause a land to disappear and be mourned, as it arose and disappear abruptly like the flooding of the Nile. The other verse says, the days are coming when the agriculture on the land is so plentiful that the hills seem to fade from view. You don't agree with that, ya'll? How do you study your bible? In English?
Sep
30
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
There is no such word. [ימג] has a higher possibility to be the "root word". Like word [יפל] . Stop inventing non-existent Hebrew words. You just pick your strong's without even understanding the conventions and then oh there is a "hollow" root. Provide the evidence that there is a root word [מוג]. You don't even know what a "hollow root" is. Words like ימד, יפה, נגד are "hollow" roots, because the root words do exist. But there is no such root word as [מוג]. Overwhelming downvoting me does not make ya'll correct.
Sep
28
comment Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
If you wish to learn the language to be a missionary in that region, I can teach you. If you wish to learn biblical Hebrew, to understand the Bible in its most fundamental level, I believe I can teach you. I was once in Bible school, training to be a missionary - but starting to understand the Bible in Hebrew made me return to my grandfather's religion.
Sep
28
comment Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
Because I have a distinction in the language in my GCE. Because I can show you all the Arabic, Parsi, Sanskrit words in that language. Because I can speak that language better than Obama can. Because though it is classified as an austronesian language, it is only about 10% austronesian, being crowded out by the Arabic, Parsi, Sanskrit, Portuguese, Spanish, and recently English words. Effectively, it may have austronesian roots, it is no longer an austornesian language. The grammar is primarily Arabic/Parsi. Because there was a man called Munshi Abdullah.
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
You don't agree with my two last paragraphs? That the two occurrences say completely different things.
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
Except some Christian opinions, I can't find the word [מוג] anywhere. Since I am not Christian, I do not trust Christian opinions if they do not provide lexical analysis. Pls find me the evidence for the existence of the word [מוג] . Perhaps, you need to familiarise yourself to the variation of the spelling of Hebrew words due to declension.
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
Tell me what is the 3rd person incomplete declension of [נמוג]. Are you familiar with the declension of the nifal ?
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
[תמוג] is a declension of [נמוג] . The word in Amos 9:13 is [מוגג] not [מוג] - look closely. What is "hitpolel" ? I only know "hitpaal". Do you know what reduplication is ?
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
I don't think you can grab three characters from two words in the Bible, and make a theology out of it. It is like asking why the similarity between the words "LET" and "starLET". One is reflexive (תתמוגג) and the other is predictive passive (תמוג). I don't know how you can trust books that are either incapable or would not explain the grammar of the words to you.
Sep
25
comment “For the sake of your ḥesed” in the Psalms
[למען] is a spectrum of meaning whose median does not meet with the median of "for sake of". First you need to understand [ען] or [לען], and then, the intensive [מען], which leads to its subsequent infinitive [למען]. Otherwise you'd be like trying to understand the word [אשר], as though it is assured a 1-1 mapping to the English conjunctive relative adjective. Without even understanding the root meaning of [אשר].