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Sep
28
comment Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
If you wish to learn the language to be a missionary in that region, I can teach you. If you wish to learn biblical Hebrew, to understand the Bible in its most fundamental level, I believe I can teach you. I was once in Bible school, training to be a missionary - but starting to understand the Bible in Hebrew made me return to my grandfather's religion.
Sep
28
comment Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
Because I have a distinction in the language in my GCE. Because I can show you all the Arabic, Parsi, Sanskrit words in that language. Because I can speak that language better than Obama can. Because though it is classified as an austronesian language, it is only about 10% austronesian, being crowded out by the Arabic, Parsi, Sanskrit, Portuguese, Spanish, and recently English words. Effectively, it may have austronesian roots, it is no longer an austornesian language. The grammar is primarily Arabic/Parsi. Because there was a man called Munshi Abdullah.
Sep
27
revised Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
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Sep
27
revised Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
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Sep
27
revised Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
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Sep
27
answered Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
You don't agree with my two last paragraphs? That the two occurrences say completely different things.
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
Except some Christian opinions, I can't find the word [מוג] anywhere. Since I am not Christian, I do not trust Christian opinions if they do not provide lexical analysis. Pls find me the evidence for the existence of the word [מוג] . Perhaps, you need to familiarise yourself to the variation of the spelling of Hebrew words due to declension.
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
Tell me what is the 3rd person incomplete declension of [נמוג]. Are you familiar with the declension of the nifal ?
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
[תמוג] is a declension of [נמוג] . The word in Amos 9:13 is [מוגג] not [מוג] - look closely. What is "hitpolel" ? I only know "hitpaal". Do you know what reduplication is ?
Sep
27
revised The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
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Sep
27
answered The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
Sep
27
comment The meaning and reference to מוג in Amos 9:13 related to that of Amos 9:5
I don't think you can grab three characters from two words in the Bible, and make a theology out of it. It is like asking why the similarity between the words "LET" and "starLET". One is reflexive (תתמוגג) and the other is predictive passive (תמוג). I don't know how you can trust books that are either incapable or would not explain the grammar of the words to you.
Sep
25
comment “For the sake of your ḥesed” in the Psalms
[למען] is a spectrum of meaning whose median does not meet with the median of "for sake of". First you need to understand [ען] or [לען], and then, the intensive [מען], which leads to its subsequent infinitive [למען]. Otherwise you'd be like trying to understand the word [אשר], as though it is assured a 1-1 mapping to the English conjunctive relative adjective. Without even understanding the root meaning of [אשר].
Sep
24
comment How does the rod in the 23rd Psalm relate to David - is it used to punish or chastise him?
Am I downvoted for plagiarizing my own blog? Or for explaining the Hebrew that as you can see is plain and simple , but for curious reasons was not too obvious to your translators. Or because stating the obvious about the (un)reliability of the kjv / niv / Septuagint in a most untactful way. It is quite obvious I have not much confidence or respect for those translations. Sorry for the bad news, and my poor communication skills.
Sep
22
comment How does the rod in the 23rd Psalm relate to David - is it used to punish or chastise him?
Unfortunately, the whole KJV (and NIV as well) is populated with mistranslations like those in Psalm 23. The American Standard is better behaved.
Sep
22
answered How does the rod in the 23rd Psalm relate to David - is it used to punish or chastise him?
Sep
21
comment Did Jephthah actually sacrifice his daughter?
When searching for the actual meaning of "virginity" in the English translations why find it out from the Hebrew of the passage? Virgin = [בתולי] -> [בתולה] , as found in the passage, vs Maiden = [עלמה] as found in Is 7:14.
Sep
18
comment What is the meaning of Zoar (Genesis 19:22)?
The question arises, mainly due to the adverb "therefore". "that is why it is called". Once that it is cleared that "therefore" or "that is why" is no longer the case - the motivation of the question fades. The main issue with the verse is what I dealt with.
Sep
18
comment What is the meaning of Zoar (Genesis 19:22)?
Addendum - "therefore" indeed is also an adverb, but the admonishment of single-mapping Hebrew preps/advs to English/Greek ones is still effective.