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Oct
26
comment Numbers 22:22 Who sent the angel of the LORD to stop Balaam?
"Definite article before or not is irrelevant". David, how familiar are you with Hebrew and biblical Hebrew in particular? There is no case to make "satan" a personal noun. Two facts that cannot be ignored: 1. the Hebrew word "שטן" has been translated as "obstruction" even in the KJV; 2. all the verses in the Bible with "שטן" will stand in perfect grammatical integrity, when "satan" is not a personal name but an off-the-shelf verb or participle.
Oct
24
revised What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
added 72 characters in body; edited tags
Oct
24
asked What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
Oct
24
comment Numbers 22:22 Who sent the angel of the LORD to stop Balaam?
+David, you are using the English translation. The Hebrew says, "the satan", not "Satan". You have to read the Hebrew, not the KJV or NIV, which are not accurate translations.
Sep
24
awarded  Autobiographer
Jul
28
awarded  Popular Question
Jul
17
awarded  Quorum
Jul
17
comment Numbers 22:22 Who sent the angel of the LORD to stop Balaam?
I decided to vote this answer down because it does not answer my question. Rather than answer whether the satan in this case, it goes on the journey explaining the Christian pov of a satan non-existent in the Hebrew part of the Bible. It seeks to delegitimise my understanding that the satan could have been any agent of G-d. It seeks to defend the Christian worldview about satan being a particular evil entity. When all I ask is - did the agent who was took on the role of satan act on own volition or was following the orders of the LORD?" I wasn't interested in your idea of a satan.
Jul
12
awarded  Talkative
Jul
10
comment What does “bless” [ברך] mean?
Is this pastor engaging in word-study fallacy of the Chinese language? youtube.com/watch?v=DA-AkJzpKmg
Jul
8
comment 1Kings 14:24 literal interpretation
Frank, there is no olam in Psalm 23. I have searched the whole Bible, there is no לארך ימים elsewhere. Pls tell me where else there is "לארך ימים". "לארך ימים" is plain and simple, lengthened days, long time, but not forever. Stone's translation, the most orthodox of our translation does not translate as "forever".
Jul
8
awarded  Critic
Jul
8
comment Numbers 22:22 Who sent the angel of the LORD to stop Balaam?
I do not accept the idea in the answer below that "It is anachronistic to read the angel in Numbers 22 as the Satan", otherwise, we could also say, apples-to-apples, that it is anachronistic to apply messianism to any passage in the Bible whose narratives originated before the 2nd exile.
Jul
8
comment 1Kings 14:24 literal interpretation
1Kings 14:22 ויעש יהודה הרע בעיני יי ויקנאו אתו מכל אשר עשו אבתם בחטאתם אשר חטאו which translates as And did he Judah the evil in eyes of the LORD and he lusted after all the which their fathers did, in your sins which they sinned. I have no idea where you got your translation because the Hebrew is so far from your translation. Therefore, my apologies, I have to vote you down for deploying that bad translation.
Jul
8
comment 1Kings 14:24 literal interpretation
Also the question was not about the word קדש. It is about the ambiguity of the Hebrew grammar, trying to figure out which of the four or more possible cases the passage meant.
Jul
8
comment 1Kings 14:24 literal interpretation
Yours could be reproduction of yet another dance around concepts to align translation to preconceived ideology. For example, Psalm 23:6, why couldn't people simply honestly translate it as lengthened days instead of forever? Why couldn't they simple-ly translate Psalm 8 as nearly G-d or little less than G-d, rather than presuming a prior theology that G-d would not want us to be as powerful as He is. As I am reading the Bible in Hebrew, deliberately blinding myself to other sources, I would never see it that way.
Jul
8
comment 1Kings 14:24 literal interpretation
I do not accept the legitimacy of however many rabbis, priests or pastors it took to produce the Septuagint, Vulgate or the KJV. What parallel literature besides medieval opinions could you use to prove your point?
Jul
7
comment What does “bless” [ברך] mean?
Also, my question is specific to the word ברך , rather than the English word "bless". I do not want the answer contaminated by other forms of " blessing" that are not from the word ברך.
Jul
7
comment What does “bless” [ברך] mean?
Should I take it from you that the blesser, rather than the blessed, kneels ?
Jul
7
comment What does “bless” [ברך] mean?
Yet they are conscious of a char in relation to the root elements.