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comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
Being proselytes/converts towards full Torah observance is different. There are too many people who claim they become part of Israel because they are Christians, and are therefore "Jews". Which is one of the reasons, excuse and strategy Christians use to exterminate/disenfranchise/relieve Jews. So that there are 2.2 billion Christians who call themselves the "true" Jews. and another 1.1 billion Muslims who call themselves the final inheritors of Israel. Where and when will all these word games end? I think it is horrid idea to equate Christians as converts to Jews/Israel.
1d
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
Richard, could you tell which exact passage(s) in Torah?
Oct
26
asked Scriptural basis for replacement ideology/theology
Oct
26
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
"This was by way of Oral traditions which were so restrictive that one trying to follow them literally could not follow written Torah." That is the opinion of certain Christians. Making such a statement is an unfriendly indictment of Jewish laws.
Oct
26
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
Without a provision of "grafting" or an equivalent wording ever being mentioned in the Jewish part of the Bible, don't you think it justifies someone willy-nilly writing an appendix to the deed of my house and then abruptly claiming ownership of my house? Because Islam itself make similar claims of superseding Jews and Christianity. Which means any religion could willy-nilly write an appendix to the Bible and claim to be part of Israel.
Oct
26
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
Are you saying that the Christian part of the Bible is in conflict with the Jewish part of the Bible? Because the Jeremiah 31 clearly says the new covenant is for Jews/Israel only. Even if you are "grafted", can Christians consider themselves Jews/Israel? I have not come across any "grafting" provision in the Jewish part of the Bible.
Oct
26
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
Which means you have to depend on the Christian documents to reach your conclusions. Such that for us who depend on the Hebrew part of the Bible alone would not be able to reach your conclusion, and will conclude that the new covenant is for Jews only. And if consider the Christian documents, we would merely conclude that the Christian documents are in conflict with the Jewish documents.
Oct
26
comment Psalms 46 - Be still or relax?
I found 20 other instances in the forms הרף הרפה רפה תרף . All of them easily carries them meaning, relax, slacken, give her some slack. Even Deut 9:14 - why should the LORD need to tell Moses to desist. Was Moses capable of actions that would impede the LORD, that he needed to desist? Rather He told him to "Don't be uptight that I am destroying those people. Relax, why don't I make your descendants a people instead?"
Oct
26
comment Psalms 46 - Be still or relax?
For goodness' sake, Bible translations should simply use the word "relax" to correspond to the Hebrew.
Oct
26
comment Numbers 22:22 Who sent the angel of the LORD to stop Balaam?
"Definite article before or not is irrelevant". David, how familiar are you with Hebrew and biblical Hebrew in particular? There is no case to make "satan" a personal noun. Two facts that cannot be ignored: 1. the Hebrew word "שטן" has been translated as "obstruction" even in the KJV; 2. all the verses in the Bible with "שטן" will stand in perfect grammatical integrity, when "satan" is not a personal name but an off-the-shelf verb or participle.
Oct
24
revised What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
added 72 characters in body; edited tags
Oct
24
asked What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
Oct
24
comment Numbers 22:22 Who sent the angel of the LORD to stop Balaam?
+David, you are using the English translation. The Hebrew says, "the satan", not "Satan". You have to read the Hebrew, not the KJV or NIV, which are not accurate translations.
Sep
24
awarded  Autobiographer
Jul
28
awarded  Popular Question
Jul
17
awarded  Quorum
Jul
17
comment Numbers 22:22 Who sent the angel of the LORD to stop Balaam?
I decided to vote this answer down because it does not answer my question. Rather than answer whether the satan in this case, it goes on the journey explaining the Christian pov of a satan non-existent in the Hebrew part of the Bible. It seeks to delegitimise my understanding that the satan could have been any agent of G-d. It seeks to defend the Christian worldview about satan being a particular evil entity. When all I ask is - did the agent who was took on the role of satan act on own volition or was following the orders of the LORD?" I wasn't interested in your idea of a satan.
Jul
12
awarded  Talkative
Jul
10
comment What does “bless” [ברך] mean?
Is this pastor engaging in word-study fallacy of the Chinese language? youtube.com/watch?v=DA-AkJzpKmg
Jul
8
comment 1Kings 14:24 literal interpretation
Frank, there is no olam in Psalm 23. I have searched the whole Bible, there is no לארך ימים elsewhere. Pls tell me where else there is "לארך ימים". "לארך ימים" is plain and simple, lengthened days, long time, but not forever. Stone's translation, the most orthodox of our translation does not translate as "forever".