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Dec
18
revised “he will rule over you” — good, bad, or neutral?
added 98 characters in body
Dec
18
asked “he will rule over you” — good, bad, or neutral?
Dec
18
revised Could Deut. 30:11-14 be a forward-looking prophecy?
added 1532 characters in body
Dec
18
comment Could Deut. 30:11-14 be a forward-looking prophecy?
That's fine, but why do you say it seems to be in the present tense? And why would such a shift to future tense not make it a prophecy. This is what I'm looking for help on. Explain the Hebrew grammar and syntax which leads to this conclusion.
Dec
18
comment Could Deut. 30:11-14 be a forward-looking prophecy?
I DV'd because the only direct answer to my actual question was an "I believe" statement. I'm specifically asking for guidance on the interpretation of the Hebrew in Deut.
Dec
18
revised Who was “speaking in David”?
deleted 83 characters in body
Dec
18
asked Could Deut. 30:11-14 be a forward-looking prophecy?
Dec
17
awarded  Popular Question
Dec
17
asked Who was “speaking in David”?
Dec
14
revised What is the difference between “eretz” and “adamah” in Gen 2:6?
deleted 6 characters in body
Dec
12
comment What historical reasons resulted in Revelation being included in most Christian canons?
Did you do all of this work just to answer this question or was it a prior research project?
Dec
12
comment Why is Luke 24:44 rendered “ψαλμοῖς” instead of “Αγιογραφία”?
I wonder if it has something to do with how folks would occasionally refer to a corpus by the name of the first / biggest / most important book? I think we see that elsewhere in the Gospels when citing minor prophets
Dec
10
comment What is the difference between “eretz” and “adamah” in Gen 2:6?
@Davïd 'eretz' is the word in question in all 3 places there. "Dry ground" does appear, but it is named "eretz". 'adamah' does not appear (so far as I can see.)
Dec
10
answered What is the difference between “eretz” and “adamah” in Gen 2:6?
Dec
10
comment What is the difference between “eretz” and “adamah” in Gen 2:6?
@Davïd This one's different, as it explores the difference in usage between two different Hebrew words.
Dec
9
answered Why does John not participate properly in worship in the book of Revelation?
Dec
9
answered Could μονογενής mean simply “unique”?
Dec
9
awarded  Peer Pressure
Dec
9
comment “Overcome” vs “comprehend” in John 1:5
@Davïd When I alluded to a scholarly cop-out, what I meant was that as we're trying to narrow down the choices, once we get to the point of only having two remaining, some scholars prefer to blame authorial intent rather than admitting, "I don't yet know which is correct." I don't mean that it's "a lazy first port-of-call" as you put it. Regarding your claims about σκοτος, do you have any support for your idea that it signifies a "gloom that extinguishes light", or is this something you heard in a sermon (or elsewhere)?
Dec
9
comment What are the translations of the Greek word “monogenes” in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?
Are you looking for an answer which attempts to translate each foreign translation (e.g. Coptic) into English? I'm assuming yes. Note that this will increase the translation error by a factor of 2. I would suggest either looking at the Greek and corresponding Hebrew (to LXX) or commentary on the Coptic etc. (if you can find it) instead.