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Dec
14
asked Are “Christ” and “Son of God” two things or one in John 20:31?
Dec
13
comment What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
@Noah We don't require quotes from the Bible to include footnotes everywhere there's a translation choice. This is how the verse is used to illustrate the hermeneutic, and my question is about that hermeneutic, so it's fine.
Dec
13
comment What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
@Noah I used the NASB, which is considered one of the most accurate translations. Keep in mind a Jew is obviously going to have a different take on this than a Christian. And again, this is perhaps the most common illustration of the hermeneutic, and the translation I chose matches the translation that is generally used for the illustration.
Dec
13
comment What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
@GoneQuiet Actually I'm not sure that it isn't just in use for one or two specific cases. (That's one of the things I'm hoping to discover after getting an answer to my question here.) It comes up quite frequently in discussions about the interpretation of Isa. 7:14 (and a few other passages I'm aware of), but not in the vast majority of discussions concerning OT prophecy. (That doesn't mean they wouldn't apply it there also, just that it doesn't seem to come up very often.)
Dec
13
comment What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
@GoneQuiet FWIW, the almah vs betulah distinction does not appear to be so cut and dry. I haven't studied it in depth though. Might make a good question here, although it would be interesting to see how unbiased we could keep the discussion... ;-)
Dec
13
comment What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
@GoneQuiet Out of curiosity, is "double-fulfillment" a major perspective in Jewish hermeneutics?
Dec
13
comment What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
@GoneQuiet Since my question doesn't require a good example (as I am not presupposing that the double-fulfillment hermeneutic is correct or that Isaiah 7:14 validates it), and since Isaiah 7:14 is one of the most commonly used illustrations of the double-fulfillment hermeneutic, I think it's fine.
Dec
13
comment What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
Hopefully this goes without saying, but this is not an exegesis question, nor is it about the proper interpretation of Isa. 7:14, nor is it about whether the double-fulfillment hermeneutic is right, nor is it about theology.
Dec
13
asked What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
Dec
13
comment What do the words “For the letter killeth” mean in 2 Corinthians 3:6
I noticed the open bounty... but I also noticed you already accepted an answer. Were you looking for something more / different than Mark Edward's answer?
Dec
12
comment How can we determine the author's intent in listing various ages in Genesis?
@gideonmarx Great question! I think it might be due to the fact that the flood represented the judgment on mankind, and all of mankind experienced the decline as a result. In other words, the point is not that a man's righteousness will provide him with a longer life, but rather, that mankind's sin is the cause for mankind's lowered lifespan.
Dec
12
awarded  Nice Answer
Dec
11
comment What was the authorial intent of Genesis 1?
Hi there! This was a great answer. Thank you for taking the time to contribute to the site. When you get a chance, check out our tour page to get a bit more familiar with how our site operates. I hope you stick around and keep up the good work. We are always happy to have new contributors who can provide the level of reliable scholarship that you have provided here.
Dec
11
answered How can we determine the author's intent in listing various ages in Genesis?
Dec
10
comment Does Paul counsel against marriage or remarriage in 1 Corinthians 7:27b?
(-1) This isn't a bad answer, but as it is currently worded it may not be a good fit for this site. For instance, you say "we cannot underestimate the importance of the end of the old covenant in AD70" but you provide no exegetical support for the Old Covenant ending in AD70. Actually, this is a heavily debated issue -- even amongst Christians, who are the only group who might agree with that assertion. If you could use the text more, and possibly remove this statement, it would go a long way toward improving the answer. Also, I would separate "application" and put it at the end.
Dec
10
awarded  Necromancer
Dec
9
asked What are the arguments against the authenticity of “Peter's” sermon in Acts 2?
Dec
7
answered 1 Cor 12:22-25 — 'weaker'? 'less honorable'? 'unpresentable'?
Dec
7
comment What is the precedent for using water as a symbol for God's Spirit in John 3:5?
Great question. I can't answer now, but actually this symbolism was not something Jesus and His followers invented. This was a (the?) Jewish view as well. (cf. Isa. 44:3)
Dec
7
revised What was the authorial intent of Genesis 1?
edited body