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I'm a born-again Christian, active member of the body of Christ, husband and father, and Bible teacher. I love to study Scripture, and firmly believe it is the only credible standard for truth.

Aside from my devotion to God, His people, and His word, I don't really have any loyalty to a particular doctrine or creed.

(The guy in the picture is Zhuge Liang from the movie Red Cliff.)


Jul
1
answered Gen 3:22 + Rev. 22:2 =?
Jul
1
comment Can Hosea 6:1-3 be interpreted as a prophecy of Jesus' resurrection?
Yes the themes should be familiar, but in the case of predictive prophecy the events themselves are not. (Because they haven't happened yet.)
Jun
30
comment Can Hosea 6:1-3 be interpreted as a prophecy of Jesus' resurrection?
Why is "an interpretation based on prior events and current context . . . more likely to be correct than one that speculates about new, unprecedented events"?
Jun
30
comment When is allegorization of scripture productive?
Some great stuff here, but how would you address Gal. 4, where Paul apparently reads historical narrative allegorically? Or 1 Cor. 10? Or Heb. 9? Or Heb. 7? (Etc.)
Jun
30
answered Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else?
Jun
28
awarded  Nice Question
Jun
26
comment What is Paul referring to in 1 Timothy 4:14?
Thanks. Some good stuff here. I'd like a bit more explanation on all three parts to the question, though. Part 1: you say "yes" but don't give me any reason other than "stuff you've seen"... Part 2: are we looking at a specific gift (e.g. from 1 Cor. 12) or not?... Part 3: I need some explanation, not just a quote. (Why is this commentator more credible than the next 50?)
Jun
26
comment Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?
@hannes The purpose of the saying is to draw attention to the true locus of meaning: the author -- not the text (and certainly not the reader.)
Jun
26
revised Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?
added 9 characters in body
Jun
26
comment Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?
-1 This sounds very devotional and pastoral... I don't want to discourage you in any of your ideas, but I think you might be more at home on Christianity.SE with answers like this. Anyway, feel free to flag this comment as obsolete once you've read it.
Jun
26
answered Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?
Jun
26
answered Acts 23:6: Were Sadducces different in their outward apparel from the Pharisees?
Jun
26
comment Who is an authority on what can be called a “Bible”?
@Caleb the absence of a good SE site to ask the question on does not make it a good fit for this site.
Jun
26
comment Who is an authority on what can be called a “Bible”?
I think This question appears to be off-topic because it is about opinion, authority, and the definition of "Bible." I'll explain more in chat.
Jun
25
revised Did Mark intend to end his gospel at 16:8?
added 325 characters in body
Jun
24
comment How can we ensure a given “chiasm” was intentional by the author, and is not merely fanciful eisegesis?
@Soldarnal But I should probably also reiterate that I'm sorting through this topic myself, so I'm not claiming to have all the answers. Or any of the right ones. :) This is just where I'm at with it at this point in time.
Jun
24
comment How can we ensure a given “chiasm” was intentional by the author, and is not merely fanciful eisegesis?
@rhetorician I see Scripture as "God-Spirited"; a perfect product of humans being led by the Spirit in their communication. As such, I am nervous of any claims to God intending to communicate something through the human author's words which the human author did not intend to communicate. That sounds more like puppetry than partnership to me. I'd love to discuss further if you are ever interested.
Jun
24
comment How can we ensure a given “chiasm” was intentional by the author, and is not merely fanciful eisegesis?
@Soldarnal Regarding Luke-Acts, I suspect what we see there is a (very significant) Divinely-guided movement in events, which the author faithfully represents. I wouldn't classify that as "chiasm" since it seems to be more of a theological presentation of God's movement toward and away from the Jewish center of religion, and less of a technique for organization, memorization, and emphasis of the central element. In other words, the movement in the text exists because of the movement in the order of events, not because the author was arranging the text for memorization, etc.
Jun
24
comment How can we ensure a given “chiasm” was intentional by the author, and is not merely fanciful eisegesis?
@Soldarnal Regarding Genesis 3, if we just restrict our inquiry to verses 9-19 I see a movement of blameshifting from the man to the woman to the serpent, and then God addressing them in reverse order. I suspect that what we have here is simply a retelling of a story that had a particular sequence of events. However, the section fails the criteria I have proposed here (not to mention that its "focus" would be on the cursing of the serpent, which seems odd given the author's reason for writing), so I don't think we're looking at a chiasm so much as a sequence of events and narrative flow.
Jun
24
answered How can we ensure a given “chiasm” was intentional by the author, and is not merely fanciful eisegesis?