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comment Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17
It does use the same adjective twice: "in order that the person of God might be fit, having been outfitted to every good work." The difference is in the tense and binding of clauses.
comment Can “many days” represent a period as long as three years in Acts 9:23?
"ἱκαναί" is closer to "enough/sufficient" than "many"
comment Why is Paul called a 'babbler' in Acts 17?
For the English side, "babble" almost exclusively means "nonsense" today but when lexicons like Liddell-Scott were produced 100 years ago it also meant "irrational" or "gossip"; see e.g.
comment Romans 14:7 - The translation and understanding of «ἑαυτῷ»
2Co 5:15 has a similar construction "ἑαυτοῖς ζῶσιν"
comment What are these names - ' name of my God' and 'my new name' Jesus mentions in Rev:3:12?
Actually, given that the Greek has "the new Jerusalem" (with a definite article rather than the KJV's participle "which is") I would say it is clearer that it is not the actual name but a description.
comment Why does Mark use “immediately” so often?
How do you explain cases like "the spirit...immediately threw the boy into a convulsion" and "immediately the father of the boy cried out" in Mark 9? They don't seem to fit this theory.
comment Does Peter's response indicate that Cornelius worshiped Him as deity in Acts 10:25-26?
You're right; I should have known if I hypothesized about tangential details the response would overwhelm the main points.
comment Translation of Acts 13:48
Unless they appointed/arranged themselves, it's passive, not middle.
comment What does “petra" mean in Mathew 16:18?
Indeed there is no use of the word "πέτρος" in the NT other than to refer to Rocky. When people handle real rocks the word is "λίθος".
comment What is the meaning of the phrase “men and brethren” in Acts?
That a speech is addressed to men does not preclude women being in the space; they simply were not addressed any more than the waiters are at a dinner fundraiser.
comment Happy or blessed in the Psalms?
I believe this common methodology is flawed. Every verse you quote reads just fine with "happy". If I said "Estoy feliz porque Dios me salvó" and a translator decided that because I included "Dios" I meant to convey Divine favor, and they repeatedly translated it as "I am blessed because God saved me" instead of "I am happy because God saved me", I would quickly be frustrated. The fault is not that the more technical term is less accessible but that there is a word much closer to my original non-technical term. 1 Kings 10:8 should disprove the "blessed" hypothesis, not be stretched to fit it.
comment What is the correct text of Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus?
And I just noticed in the Siniaticus that ειλεωϲ is clearly the spelling there…
comment Happy or blessed in the Psalms?
The TDOT has an excellent section on this word and would be my Answer if I could just paste it outright. But fair use suggests I should whet your appetite instead with: "According to Mowinckel, there is no difference between the words 'ashre and barukh, but according to Kraus the "more secular" 'ashre should be distinguished from the sacral-solemn barukh. (H.-J. Kraus, Bibischer Kommentar, X/1, 3)"
comment Happy or blessed in the Psalms?
I can't speak for the Hebrew, but I look forward to the Greek question you're going to ask next. I've lost count of the number of Greek words which have an ordinary translation until they appear in the NT, where they suddenly require an extraordinary translation: blessing, glory, righteousness, prayer, grace, gospel...
comment 1 Kings 1:53 - What is the difference between the manner of obeisance (προσκύνησις) given to a king versus God?
Why would you imagine there is one?
comment What is the meaning of “katatomē” in Philippians 3:2?
"kata-" has a broad semantic range, true. But it's worth noting that it very frequently adds a sense of conflict, damage, or destruction to what it modifies. The LSJ entry (seeκατά ) discusses this, for example, in E.III: "against, in hostile sense..." and VII: "implying waste or consumption...generally in a disparaging sense"
comment Can the Greek word choice underlining “agony” mean “afraid” or “worried” in Luke 22:44?
I guess my point was that, just because the word can appear alongside "afraid" or "worried", that does not make it mean either of those.
comment In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?
That would imply Paul used the future tense ("will stop") to refer to past or perfect events, and would mean verses 11 and 12 refer to something else since "will recognize" is also future, wouldn't it?
comment Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
David, they do not consider it an oversight so much as they do not trust all readers' ability to infer meaning from context. The intent is to avoid any possible misreading by cementing the contextual meaning as text. I've found in my own studies plenty of places where that actually cements the translators' own misunderstanding, so I don't generally agree with that approach, but that seems to be their intent.
comment Commas amid the fruit of the Spirit
Good question! NA had been mostly following Tischendorf and Wescott/Hort until 1979 (see ), but even Tischendorf had all commas (see ) and WH had none ( ). Luther is another source for NA punctuation notes, but it has all commas too.