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1d
comment What is the meaning of “katatomē” in Philippians 3:2?
"kata-" has a broad semantic range, true. But it's worth noting that it very frequently adds a sense of conflict, damage, or destruction to what it modifies. The LSJ entry (see logeion.uchicago.edu/index.html#κατά ) discusses this, for example, in E.III: "against, in hostile sense..." and VII: "implying waste or consumption...generally in a disparaging sense"
Jul
26
comment Can the Greek word choice underlining “agony” mean “afraid” or “worried” in Luke 22:44?
I guess my point was that, just because the word can appear alongside "afraid" or "worried", that does not make it mean either of those.
Jul
25
answered What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?
Jul
25
answered Can the Greek word choice underlining “agony” mean “afraid” or “worried” in Luke 22:44?
Jul
22
comment In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?
That would imply Paul used the future tense ("will stop") to refer to past or perfect events, and would mean verses 11 and 12 refer to something else since "will recognize" is also future, wouldn't it?
Jul
21
comment Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
David, they do not consider it an oversight so much as they do not trust all readers' ability to infer meaning from context. The intent is to avoid any possible misreading by cementing the contextual meaning as text. I've found in my own studies plenty of places where that actually cements the translators' own misunderstanding, so I don't generally agree with that approach, but that seems to be their intent.
Jul
20
answered In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?
Jul
11
answered What is the “the word” in Luke 1:2?
Jul
10
answered What contingency is being expressed in Matthew 24:34 via the word “ἄν”?
Jul
7
comment Commas amid the fruit of the Spirit
Good question! NA had been mostly following Tischendorf and Wescott/Hort until 1979 (see nestle-aland.com/en/history ), but even Tischendorf had all commas (see studybible.info/Tischendorf/Galatians%205 ) and WH had none (studybible.info/LXX_WH/Galatians%205 ). Luther is another source for NA punctuation notes, but it has all commas too.
Jul
7
comment John 15:5 – Bring Forth or Carry/Support Fruit?
Which is a shame because English does have such a word which any vintner knows: "canes".
Jul
7
revised Why are the disciples called “little” in Matthew?
added 81 characters in body
Jul
7
answered Why are the disciples called “little” in Matthew?
Jul
5
comment Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?
(aside) I highly recommend you start with Mark or anything by John first. Then Luke/Acts to fill out vocab. Then Paul (keep Romans til late). Then Peter and Hebrews. Peter's Greek is pretty convoluted.
May
28
comment Why are the crowds amazed when they see Jesus in Mark 9?
A more modern translation might be "alarmed".
May
27
comment Ephesians 1:12 - Translation of “προηλπικότας”
I'm torn. Part of me wants to translate it as "we who were expected before" even though it doesn't have a middle/passive marker, in the same way that e.g. Php 1:14 uses an active form to mean "having been persuaded"; it's rare but not unheard-of especially when "adjectivizing" a word. But I could be completely wrong and it indeed refers to e.g. the apostles hoping before the Ephesians did.
May
26
comment Ephesians 1:12 - Translation of “προηλπικότας”
The reason that everyone consistently views this temporally is not due to statistics or comparative analysis. To correctly understand the "προ-" of "προηλπικότας" we must find what event, place, or position the hope precedes. That is pretty clearly before "the sowing of the world order" in verse 4, which the "marked us off before into adoption" of verse 5 and 11 and "placed before" of verse 9 are also before. Therefore "προηλπικότας" is also before that event rather than a place or position.
May
20
comment 1st Thessalonians 4:13-14: “those who sleep in Jesus”
@brilliant no, my main point is that the prepositional phrase "διὰ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ" ("through Jesus") modifies the principal verb "to lead/bring" not the participle "who fell asleep".
May
19
comment 1st Thessalonians 4:13-14: “those who sleep in Jesus”
"thusly God, through Jesus, will lead with him those who fell asleep"
May
19
comment 1st Thessalonians 4:13-14: “those who sleep in Jesus”
IMO it's more likely that the original "τοὺς κοιμηθέντας διὰ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἄξει" has the sense of "will lead through Jesus" (a la "διάγω" ~= "conduct") rather than "the ones who fell asleep in Jesus".