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Aug
28
comment What is the meaning of the phrase “men and brethren” in Acts?
That a speech is addressed to men does not preclude women being in the space; they simply were not addressed any more than the waiters are at a dinner fundraiser.
Aug
13
comment Happy or blessed in the Psalms?
I believe this common methodology is flawed. Every verse you quote reads just fine with "happy". If I said "Estoy feliz porque Dios me salvó" and a translator decided that because I included "Dios" I meant to convey Divine favor, and they repeatedly translated it as "I am blessed because God saved me" instead of "I am happy because God saved me", I would quickly be frustrated. The fault is not that the more technical term is less accessible but that there is a word much closer to my original non-technical term. 1 Kings 10:8 should disprove the "blessed" hypothesis, not be stretched to fit it.
Aug
12
revised What is the correct text of Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus?
added itacism alternative
Aug
12
awarded  Student
Aug
12
comment What is the correct text of Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus?
And I just noticed in the Siniaticus that ειλεωϲ is clearly the spelling there codexsinaiticus.org/en/…
Aug
12
revised What is the correct text of Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus?
fixed flow of final questions
Aug
12
asked What is the correct text of Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus?
Aug
10
comment Happy or blessed in the Psalms?
The TDOT has an excellent section on this word and would be my Answer if I could just paste it outright. But fair use suggests I should whet your appetite instead with: "According to Mowinckel, there is no difference between the words 'ashre and barukh, but according to Kraus the "more secular" 'ashre should be distinguished from the sacral-solemn barukh. (H.-J. Kraus, Bibischer Kommentar, X/1, 3)"
Aug
10
comment Happy or blessed in the Psalms?
I can't speak for the Hebrew, but I look forward to the Greek question you're going to ask next. I've lost count of the number of Greek words which have an ordinary translation until they appear in the NT, where they suddenly require an extraordinary translation: blessing, glory, righteousness, prayer, grace, gospel...
Aug
8
answered How is John's answer in Luke 9:49 an answer?
Aug
8
comment 1 Kings 1:53 - What is the difference between the manner of obeisance (προσκύνησις) given to a king versus God?
Why would you imagine there is one?
Aug
8
answered Matthew 7:13-14: What is the straight gate and the narrow way?
Aug
8
answered Blood of God reference to Christ's deity (Act:20:28)
Jul
29
comment What is the meaning of “katatomē” in Philippians 3:2?
"kata-" has a broad semantic range, true. But it's worth noting that it very frequently adds a sense of conflict, damage, or destruction to what it modifies. The LSJ entry (see logeion.uchicago.edu/index.html#κατά ) discusses this, for example, in E.III: "against, in hostile sense..." and VII: "implying waste or consumption...generally in a disparaging sense"
Jul
26
comment Can the Greek word choice underlining “agony” mean “afraid” or “worried” in Luke 22:44?
I guess my point was that, just because the word can appear alongside "afraid" or "worried", that does not make it mean either of those.
Jul
25
answered What meaning does the preposition πρὸς really convey in John 1:1?
Jul
25
answered Can the Greek word choice underlining “agony” mean “afraid” or “worried” in Luke 22:44?
Jul
22
comment In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?
That would imply Paul used the future tense ("will stop") to refer to past or perfect events, and would mean verses 11 and 12 refer to something else since "will recognize" is also future, wouldn't it?
Jul
21
comment Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
David, they do not consider it an oversight so much as they do not trust all readers' ability to infer meaning from context. The intent is to avoid any possible misreading by cementing the contextual meaning as text. I've found in my own studies plenty of places where that actually cements the translators' own misunderstanding, so I don't generally agree with that approach, but that seems to be their intent.
Jul
20
answered In 1 Cor 13:10, What does “The Perfect” Refer to?