| bio | website | |
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| visits | member for | 1 year, 2 months |
| seen | May 6 at 14:52 | |
| stats | profile views | 0 |
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Apr 13 |
awarded | Nice Question |
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Apr 12 |
comment |
How should James 2:18 be translated? Thanks, very interesting answer. Can you elaborate? It seems to me that if v 18-19 are attributed to an objector, the objector's argument would be along the lines of "Actions are important, and belief in God is not", in which case his refutation in the subsequent verses wouldn't make sense. The objector says "I have actions", and I'm having difficulty seeing how he is arguing "we can do whatever we want" |
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Mar 13 |
awarded | Yearling |
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Aug 23 |
awarded | Critic |
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Aug 23 |
comment |
Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? "If Paul ussed offensive language, he would have weakened the argument that he was making." - I can't understand this point at all. Why not use a word that is commensurate in force with the meaning? Stronger word => Strong meaning, right? |
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Aug 23 |
comment |
Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? I can't help but feel like this answer is mostly unsupported opinion (and with too much bolded text!)... "The word means excrement or dung, which are 'polite and respectable' words" - Can you source that this word was seen as polite and respectable? "Paul opposes profanity." - Ephesians 5:4 does not seem to make this case. "to imagine a pracher saying offensive words in a serom just seems wrong" - It doesn't seem wrong to me, especially if used to add emphasis or force. |
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Aug 21 |
comment |
Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? Here's an interesting article on the subject: bible.org/article/brief-word-study-skuvbalon |
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Aug 15 |
comment |
Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? @BlessedGeek, Much of this article is written humorously. See also: While liberals, neo-orthodox, post-liberals, feminists, historians, Methodists, and other heretics may feel obliged to remove “crap” from the Bible... |
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Aug 15 |
comment |
Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? @JonEricson, The thing I'm trying to get at is whether the word Paul used had the same connotation/force as the English word crap/sh*t. There is a large segment in Christianity that considers the utterance of these words a sin - so I do think it is interesting to know if the word Paul used would have had the same societal connotation/force/tabooness of these words. |
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Aug 14 |
comment |
Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? @swasheck, Good link, thanks |
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Aug 14 |
asked | Was 'σκύβαλον' (skubalon) profanity? |
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Jun 6 |
comment |
How should James 2:18 be translated? Very interesting regarding the singular vs. plural You - but if I understand that correctly, wouldn't that place the diatribe in verse 23? Your second section seems to assume an earlier ending. I like the Blomberg/Kamell interpretation - thanks! |
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May 31 |
asked | How should James 2:18 be translated? |
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May 23 |
comment |
Which covenant is “New” in Galatians 3? Thanks - so, if I understand correctly, God's covenant with Abraham is the old covenant, and the fulfilment of that promise in Christ is the new covenant? |
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May 23 |
revised |
Which covenant is “New” in Galatians 3? added 923 characters in body |
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May 23 |
comment |
Which covenant is “New” in Galatians 3? Thanks. One thing that's still confusing is there Jeremiah passage that I referenced: "Behold, the days are coming, declares the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah". Why does God say that he will make a new covenant if it has already been made with Abraham? |
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May 21 |
asked | Which covenant is “New” in Galatians 3? |
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May 17 |
awarded | Self-Learner |
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May 17 |
accepted | According to Romans 5, is death caused by individual sin, or Adam's sin? |
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May 17 |
asked | Did Paul expect Timothy to see “the last days”? |