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I like translating the Hebrew of the Bible, and I think it can be done accurately and honestly, better than extant translations, so long as you ignore the theologically minded people completely. They generally are not honest enough, you can't trust anything they say.


Apr
11
revised What does Cain say to Abel in Genesis 4:8?
it is a grammar error, which is a form of contradiction for such things
Apr
11
comment What does Cain say to Abel in Genesis 4:8?
It's not speculation, because it exists in the LXX and in Samaritan, and the sentence is ungrammatical without this--- this means the original had the text, and LXX agrees with samaritan. In history and literature, this is called "certainty" (it's better than 5 sigma evidence).
Apr
11
comment Was Moses the probable author of Genesis?
@BruceAlderman: I agree you need someone to tell you, and then you notice, but once you notice, if you reject it, this is is a lie to yourself and to others. I read Gen/Exo, and the E,J doublets, along with the textual divisions, are absolutely manifest to the eyes. I can't condone people who read this text and don't say so. It's like half is in caps and the other half small.
Apr
11
awarded  Quorum
Apr
11
asked Is the author of Ecclesiastes referring to Archimedes?
Apr
11
accepted Who was Moses supposed to say sent him, “Ehieh” or “Yahweh”
Apr
11
comment Did women contribute to the temple in exodus 35:22?
I see--- there is a way to make something like your interpretation work: "kol nediv lev, heviu ...., ve-kol ish...", you can make "kol nediv lev" in the second part parallel to "kol ish". It's still an unnatural verse--- the men are specifically put in charge of womanly things--- but at least its grammatical.
Apr
11
comment Why does God say he only revealed his name, Yahweh, to Moses?
@J.C.Salomon: Whether it's "with" or "in" (I used "by"), the best reading by far is that the Patriarchs were not given the name. This is E narrative, it is consistent with E narrative in other ways. It is a little more plausible using "with my YHVH-ness", but the word used is "with my YHWH name" (I would use "in my guise of YHWH" as the closest corresponding ambiguous English construction to your intended interpretation). Even this way, it sounds most naturally like "I did not reveal my name". Your interpretation is the same as the upvoted answer--- I don't think it is supported by the text.
Apr
11
accepted Why does Moses grill leavened bread on Yahweh's altar?
Apr
11
comment Why does Moses grill leavened bread on Yahweh's altar?
+1: Thanks much! This completely answers the question.
Apr
11
accepted Did Noah take two doves, or fourteen?
Apr
11
accepted Was Abimelech a granny chaser?
Apr
11
comment Why does God say he only revealed his name, Yahweh, to Moses?
@J.C.Salomon: You are right. I chose a new wording. Sorry. I make mistakes like that every once in a while. Thanks for catching it.
Apr
11
revised Why does God say he only revealed his name, Yahweh, to Moses?
fix
Apr
11
comment Why does God say he only revealed his name, Yahweh, to Moses?
@J.C.Salomon: I see now--- because the Hebrew is "in my name Yahweh, I did not make myself known", I translated equivalently to "my name Yahweh, I did not make known", because I thought the "in" business was too idiomatic Hebrew. I changed the phrasing to the easier English--- because the "in my guise of Yahweh, I did not make myself known" is much too cumbersome in my opinion for the simple Hebrew sentiment. I am asking about the Hebrew, not the English, which is just a gloss. If you think it's really wrong, I can fix it, but I think it's ok, in terms of matching with equal formality.
Apr
11
comment What is Leviticus 13:55 all about?
Please put the full verse, so one can see exactly what is being translated--- they might skip this part.
Apr
11
comment Why does Noah curse Canaan?
This is extraordinary, it sounds 100% correct to me, explaining this mystery entirely. But it does require a small redaction--- "he became naked and exposed" makes it clear that it is Noah that is exposed. The story could have been readacted for young readers.
Apr
11
comment Did women contribute to the temple in exodus 35:22?
The issue is binding: you can't bind "they" to "and the people who run fast", as in "They walk to the store, the people who run fast", but not "They walk to the store, and the people who run fast". The second is not grammatical. Hebrew has grammar just like every other language, and to ignore the grammar is a big mistake.
Apr
11
comment Which are the Ten Commandments?
While this is not the best answer to the question, it is still correct that this parallel is evidence in favor of the documentary hypothesis, although of a weaker character than the Noah story which is a smoking gun.
Apr
11
comment Did women contribute to the temple in exodus 35:22?
This is almost a grammatically allowed reading. I would read it this way, except for the "and-waw", the "we" (and), at the beginning of "everyone". "They came, men over women, all the generous ... , all gold impelements, and everyone that brought an offering of gold unto the LORD." The "and" does not in my experience ever allow a parallel of this sort, this is mostly why I believe "the men" is an interpolation. As for "gender neutral", it can't be, because it specifically puts the men above the women regarding vulva cover donations, and uses a masculine "generous".