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Nov
16
awarded  Popular Question
Nov
12
awarded  Revival
Nov
10
comment Who was Moses supposed to say sent him, “Ehieh” or “Yahweh”
Oh, I see! You think the "post-hoc" etymological justification for the name is being done here by the same author! It's the redactor, the person who put the J/E together this way, who is making the post-hoc justification by the juxtaposition, neither J nor E gives an etymology for Yahweh, and the etymology is implicit, not parallel to neither J nor E stuff (although it's in a similar spirit). This answer is incorrect--- the "J part" and the "E part" are in different voices, the seam is obvious and clunky, and this is the first place where they start to agree on the name of God.
Nov
9
comment Who was Moses supposed to say sent him, “Ehieh” or “Yahweh”
I agree, it's like the other stretchy folk-etymologies, but this one is not so ridiculous (neither is noach), because "Yahweh" sort of sounds like a nonexistent conjugation of to be, which mangles the future and past tense. But they don't sound very much alike, you are right. I have already explained the main point, that it is one more place that you can clearly see the JE authorial division in Genesis/Exodus.
Nov
4
answered Did Moses have an Egyptian name?
Nov
4
comment Did Moses have an Egyptian name?
The active is "Moshet", not "Moshe". The etymology is totally wrong.
Nov
4
answered Why did Abel keep flocks if man wasn't supposed to eat flesh til after the Flood?
Nov
4
answered What was Noah thinking when he sent a raven from the ark?
Nov
3
comment Why does God say he only revealed his name, Yahweh, to Moses?
@FrankLuke: I do not cite authority to support positions, I also don't read books (other than original sources), so my knowledge is all self-derived. This means I make an occasional mistake, but not very often, and much less than the phony-baloney so-called experts. Sorry to not be able to oblige.
Oct
26
revised Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
added the Hebrew
Oct
26
comment Does Exodus 22:28 call for child sacrifice?
Conflict of interest disclosure: I am firstborn.
Oct
26
comment Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
I added the Hebrew text to your examples, to make the answer self-contained, I hope this is ok.
Oct
26
comment Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
@GoneQuiet: No, it's much less different, it's about as similar as Shakespeare's English (Early modern English) is to modern English. Aramaic is about as different from modern Hebrew as Old English is from English. The Hebrew language essentially was close to frozen at the Biblical form for thousands of years, since it was only used in worship and religious texts. This question gives one of the genuine difference between them.
Oct
26
suggested approved edit on Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
Oct
26
awarded  Peer Pressure
Oct
26
accepted Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
Oct
26
comment Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
Thank you for the examples, you are right, I accepted, and deleted my answer! I am surprised I missed those examples on reading, although there are only a handful, I should have noticed. It's an odd thing that the number verb mismatch happens in these cases, but I understand now that it is a genuine parallel construction which is absent in modern Hebrew.
Oct
26
comment Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?
The sentences I am pointing out are not compound, and they don't allow subject verb disagreement (or subject pronoun disagreement). I don't need a Hebrew grammar, I'm a native speaker! I know what is grammatical and what isn't intuitively, and my intuition matches nearly all the ancient text, so there isn't much change. It's all fine in terms of agreement except for the Moses/Aaron crap. Please compare these to GKC, the examples in GKS are of the form "Those plural things/people that are X, do Y to this person/thing", which I feel is fine, and has nothing to do with my issue.
Oct
25
comment Does Exodus 22:28 call for child sacrifice?
I am not sure, I wasn't sure. There is a theme of the firstborn male being inferior (Kain/Esau/Judah) because overly-masculine, killing firstborns is a natural extension. I was looking for archeological exegesis--- showing the practice was absent before the first exile, or perhaps that it was present then banned during the first exile. I can't say Monica's interpretation is wrong, but your interpretation is not great--- Samuel is "given" to God (Heb:titen), while the firstborns are "redeemed" (Heb: tiphdeh ), which is different, and from context has connotation of a killing sacrifice.
Oct
25
comment Did women contribute to the temple in exodus 35:22?
@warren: There is a lot of aversion, Song of Solomon is usually rendered relatively mildly compared to the Hebrew, although there it doesn't talk about sex organs directly, mostly about breasts, faces, and annointing oils.