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g33k, orthodox, musician, etc.


Feb
19
comment Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?
Good point, I should probably remove that reference. It is not a direct correlation.
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 Glad it helped
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 but for the record, I think swasheck's answer is better than mine
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
Just edited so hopefully that clarifies my stance.
Feb
19
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 you misread my answer: Based solely on context, I think it's impossible to determine whether the present or future verb is best (six one way, half a dozen the other), but I still think the third-person plural reading makes the most sense (i.e. αὐτούς). When I reference ἡμᾶς in the last paragraph, I am referring to its use in Rev. 1:6, not in 5:10.
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 I added a contextual response at the end of my answer.
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
I agree @swasheck - which I think Metzger makes clear (I wanted to quote more than one source on this, and my only other textual commentary basically just quotes Metzger).
Feb
16
comment What is the name of Jesus in the Peshitta text?
@SarahNoll does this sufficiently answer the question or are you looking for more? Concerning additional sources for supporting that the NT was originally written in Aramaic, that is a separate question.
Feb
16
comment In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?
@Mike I got an answer at the conference.
Feb
16
comment In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?
@SarahNoll I found someone at the conference who knows Syriac.
Feb
16
comment In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?
It's all good. I'm at a conference at Princeton and I'll be looking for an opportunity to ask a Semitic languages scholar about this tomorrow.
Feb
16
comment In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?
I did the power lookup and got the same result.
Feb
16
comment What portions of the New Testament are purported to have originally been written in Aramaic?
Can you point me to any scholarly books or articles about the things you've mentioned in your post? I'd like to learn more (beyond Wikipedia).
Feb
16
comment What portions of the New Testament are purported to have originally been written in Aramaic?
I wasn't aware of this, thanks!
Feb
14
comment What portions of the New Testament are purported to have originally been written in Aramaic?
Yes, but I specifically mentioned that I was not interested in the Q theory.
Feb
13
comment “the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2
@SarahNoll sorry, I never think to read profiles. My bad.
Feb
13
comment What does it mean to be “born of water”?
I think this is the best answer to this question.
Feb
13
comment Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?
I believe I've heard of this before concerning the godhead referred to as the 'plural of majesty.'
Feb
13
comment “the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2
@brilliant this is how
Feb
13
comment Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular?
Could you elaborate on this a little more? I think you're on to something but I'd like to see some more support or a citation from a scholarly source.