Dan O'Day

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Orthodox Christian interested in religious/ecclesiastical history, Patristics, music, digital forensics, technology, NLP/CL, Python, etc.

	3,232 reputation	bio	website	rockadoodee.com	visits	member for	1 year, 3 months
632 badges		location	Chicagoland		seen	15 hours ago

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May 10	comment	Did God make an idol? @MatthewMiller that's generally who I identify with most, yes. Although I wouldn't say I always fit in ;)
May 10	comment	In the Peshitta, what is the difference between the original word translated “Sabbath” and that translated “week?” That's because you're looking at Matthew 21:8, not 28:1. It looks like you're confusing the verse references, even in your own response (you mention 28:1 first but then proceed to address 21:8).
May 10	comment	Did God make an idol? From an Eastern Orthodox perspective, we are "icons" of God (this becomes explicit in the Greek, especially in NT).
May 6	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? Again, if you read my answers linked to above you'll see that it is possible to take scripture at face value and still not see hell as a place of "eternal or longlasting cruelty," at no point did I make a case that Gehenna is a place of cruelty. I said that it is a place of torment after death. I did not say God is tormenting them there (I would actually argue that they are tormenting themselves but you can read the links I already posted for more on that).
May 3	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? @hannes also keep in mind that on this site, these must be purely textual questions. Theological questions are for Christianity.SE or Judaism.SE (Mi Yodeya). I am strictly addressing the text as best I can.
May 3	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? Translating it as "hell" has to do with the linguistic connotations of it being a place of burning fire and torment of some sort. If you read my response on C.SE plus this, you'll see how that can be read in a way not conventional to Western Christian thought: christianity.stackexchange.com/a/15927/1304
May 1	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? @hannes also please note that I intentionally left theological speculation of out of my response. I stuck strictly to the text. If you'd like to know my personal thoughts on this, check out christianity.stackexchange.com/a/12287/1304
May 1	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? @hannes I don't understand what you're asking.
Apr 30	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? @MonicaCellio you didn't miss anything, I didn't mention it in my answer. I figured that might fall in the realm of theological speculation. Do you have a JSTOR account?
Apr 30	comment	Why is the tribe of Dan missing from Revelation 7:5-8? Hey Mike, your chart was good but it made it hard to see who was included and who was excluded. I modified it, I hope you don't mind. It makes it clearer to see the dis/continuity as well as placing Ephraim and Manesseh under Joseph where they would logically be.
Apr 30	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? @MonicaCellio PS I did my best not to use the term "Old Testament" (although one of my sources does), as this places a Christian reading on the entire response.
Apr 30	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? OK @hannes - I offered my thoughts.
Apr 30	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? @MonicaCellio good point. I was playing off of the idea of the 'second death' being equated with Ge Hinnom in Isaiah (which only comes out in the Aramaic Targums), but I didn't really clarify this connection. To me it was apparent that Ge Ben Hinnom came to represent something figuratively, i.e. something divinely erected. But this is why "Gehenna" is my first choice (a direct transliteration).
Apr 19	comment	Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17” @Qoheleth-Tech I have Carson's book on my shelf and never thought to reference it. Dough! Thanks for the pointer!
Apr 18	comment	How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? I'm intrigued by this question, but I'm not sure I understand it entirely. You seem to answer your own question. I can definitely help you understand the terms (גהנום/גהנם / γέεννα), but I want to make sure that's what you're looking for before attempting.
Apr 18	comment	Does John distinguish between terms for love? Hannes, I appreciate that you are participating in this community! However, this question is specifically about two historical dialects of the Greek language and the specific Greek words in Johannine literature that are translated into English as "love." As it currently stands, this is not an answer to the question. Please consider revising your response.
Apr 15	comment	What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? @swasheck If I played on anything linguistically it would be that "being" (ὑπάρχων) in the form of God was natural (he was 'in the form of God'), while 'taking' (λαβών) the form of a slave was an active choice.
Apr 15	comment	What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? @swasheck not particularly, just the role they play in each sentence. In v. 6 it is in the dative because of the preposition. In v. 7 it is in accusative because it is the direct object of the participle. The genitive 'slave' just modifies the object here to explain what type/kind of form was taken. Am I missing something?
Apr 15	comment	Does the NT concept of grace exist in the OT? As written, this question is off topic for this site. Perhaps it could be edited to resolve this?
Apr 15	comment	What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? Let me know if you want to know more about any of the works referenced in the lexicon. I have a guide to the abbreviations used; I know they are not always clear.