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| bio | website | rockadoodee.com |
|---|---|---|
| location | Chicagoland | |
| age | ||
| visits | member for | 1 year, 3 months |
| seen | 21 hours ago | |
| stats | profile views | 24 |
Orthodox Christian interested in religious/ecclesiastical history, Patristics, music, digital forensics, technology, NLP/CL, Python, etc.
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Feb 20 |
comment |
What does John 12:40 mean? I should mention that it is very important in my tradition to see what the Patristic consensus is on a given passage before attempting to interpret it on my own. That's the reason for the extensive footnotes |
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Feb 20 |
answered | What does John 12:40 mean? |
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Feb 20 |
comment |
What does John 12:40 mean? This seems like a doctrinal question to me (different doctrinal perspectives might give different answers), but I'll bite ;) |
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Feb 19 |
comment |
Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative? @H3br3wHamm3r81 I removed it, good catch. |
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Feb 19 |
revised |
Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative? Removed reference to John 15:10 |
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Feb 19 |
comment |
Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative? Good point, I should probably remove that reference. It is not a direct correlation. |
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Feb 19 |
revised |
Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative? fixed committee stuff |
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Feb 19 |
revised |
Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative? Added note on subjunctive mood |
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Feb 19 |
answered | Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative? |
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Feb 19 |
revised |
Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative? Spelling error in title |
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Feb 19 |
comment |
Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10? @H3br3wHamm3r81 Glad it helped |
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Feb 19 |
comment |
Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10? @H3br3wHamm3r81 but for the record, I think swasheck's answer is better than mine |
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Feb 19 |
comment |
Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10? Just edited so hopefully that clarifies my stance. |
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Feb 19 |
revised |
Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10? clarified my position |
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Feb 19 |
comment |
Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10? @H3br3wHamm3r81 you misread my answer: Based solely on context, I think it's impossible to determine whether the present or future verb is best (six one way, half a dozen the other), but I still think the third-person plural reading makes the most sense (i.e. αὐτούς). When I reference ἡμᾶς in the last paragraph, I am referring to its use in Rev. 1:6, not in 5:10. |
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Feb 19 |
awarded | Necromancer |
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Feb 19 |
revised |
Is Peter's use of Tartarus adoptive of Hellenistic language or ideas? added note about allusion to Jude |
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Feb 19 |
answered | Is Peter's use of Tartarus adoptive of Hellenistic language or ideas? |
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Feb 18 |
answered | In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”? |
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Feb 18 |
revised |
Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10? verse reference update |
