| bio | website | rockadoodee.com |
|---|---|---|
| location | Chicagoland | |
| age | ||
| visits | member for | 1 year, 3 months |
| seen | 6 hours ago | |
| stats | profile views | 24 |
Orthodox Christian interested in religious/ecclesiastical history, Patristics, music, digital forensics, technology, NLP/CL, Python, etc.
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Mar 30 |
revised |
Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 Grammar and removed incorrect grammatical explanations |
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Mar 30 |
revised |
Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 changed proposed translation for clarity |
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Mar 30 |
comment |
“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 @brilliant The diacritics are the only way to differentiate number (sing./pl.) in the Syriac dialect of Aramaic used in the Peshitta, and those weren't added until later. So yes, we can distinguish them now, because we have the diacritics. |
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Mar 30 |
revised |
Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 formatting |
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Mar 30 |
comment |
Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 Casey, let me know if my answer clears this up for you. I'm not really sure if it answers your question or not (I'm not really sure what your question is if not). |
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Mar 30 |
answered | Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 |
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Mar 30 |
comment |
Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 actually, some folks really like this question, so don't let the downvotes dissuade you. I just can't figure out what specifically you are looking for as an answer. Confusing. I'm not sure what to make of it. You sound as though you know Hebrew well enough to answer your own question, but at the same time you misunderstand a lot of grammatical categories. Hard to put my finger on it. I'll attempt to answer, that will open up more discussion at least. We'll see if I'm on the same page or not. |
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Mar 28 |
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What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament? @FrankLuke I awarded a bounty for your effort in this question (and following it in chat) |
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Mar 26 |
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Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references @caseyr547 actually if you look in the footnotes for the examples following the introduction in Waltke/O'Connor, he references several other books that should corroborate their points. |
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Mar 25 |
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Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references It looks like you got your answer on this question, what more are you looking for? |
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Mar 25 |
revised |
Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references rolled back to a previous revision |
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Mar 25 |
revised |
Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references rolled back to a previous revision |
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Mar 25 |
comment |
Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references For your benefit, I'll just comment and say that in the (biblical) Hebrew language, the Hiphil and the Hophal carry a causative connotation. The Qal does not, however. Waltke and O'Connor are subject-matter-experts on this, but many other scholars on biblical Hebrew also support this (just about any introductory or intermediate grammar on biblical Hebrew addresses this). |
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Mar 25 |
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Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references OK so after determining that this is likely the context for this question, it appears to be a question about the Hebrew language itself, which would be off topic for BH.SE (since the question does not begin with the text - consider asking for clarification on your other question). |
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Mar 25 |
awarded | Cleanup |
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Mar 25 |
revised |
Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references rolled back to a previous revision |
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Mar 25 |
revised |
Waltke/O'Connor qal causation references I attempted to discern the actual question |
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Mar 16 |
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What is the proper translation of Hosea 11:12? @FrankLuke thanks, that means a lot coming from you. I appreciate the feedback. |
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Mar 15 |
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What does a mustard seed grow into! @Sarah I should have stated that in my response, just edited it. |
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Mar 15 |
revised |
What does a mustard seed grow into! Added note on intent of response |