Dan O'Day

3,233 reputation

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bio	website	rockadoodee.com
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Orthodox Christian interested in religious/ecclesiastical history, Patristics, music, digital forensics, technology, NLP/CL, Python, etc.

	3,233 reputation	bio	website	rockadoodee.com	visits	member for	1 year, 3 months
632 badges		location	Chicagoland		seen	yesterday

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Apr 15	revised	What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? Removed footer, added Greek
Apr 14	comment	Does Paul refer to his past or present evil/sin in Romans 7 Keep in mind that there is no past tense in Greek. The tenses in Greek have to do with aspect, not with time. This is hard for us to grasp since we have no equivalent in modern English, but is essential for understanding Greek. This is why the aorist is sometimes translated in past or present tense in English.
Apr 12	revised	How should James 2:18 be translated? Fixed Greek
Apr 12	comment	How should James 2:18 be translated? +1 slow clap. This is the best analysis of these verses I've ever read.
Apr 12	awarded	Civic Duty
Apr 12	comment	God and Passive Hebrew tense and aspect @caseyr547 but keep in mind software is no substitute for knowledge. I would highly encourage you to take a course in Hebrew as it seems you often confuse the grammatical categories (e.g. you clearly misunderstand the passive voice in this question). I mean no disrespect by this, as you are clearly truly trying to understand the text, which is commendable. But software will do you no good if you don't understand the morphology, grammar, syntax, etc. once it is given to you.
Apr 11	comment	Why does the Peshitta use the word ‘baptism’ for ‘enlightened’ in Hebrews 6:4? I was going to answer this question, but you pretty much nailed it. The Peshitta often takes some liberty and adds commentary for clarification. Especially in the book of Hebrews. Another example is Hebrews 4:8, where "son of Nun" is added to clarify that Joshua is the subject of the verse, not Jesus. Great job.
Apr 11	answered	What does λεστες mean in Mark 11:17?
Apr 11	revised	What does λεστες mean in Mark 11:17? Fixed final sigma
Apr 10	comment	Is Jesus equal to or less than the Father I think that this question belongs on C.SE. While it appears to begin from the text, it is actually a thinly veiled theological/philosophical question about the godhead.
Apr 9	asked	Historical Context and Fulfillment of Isaiah 7:8
Apr 5	reviewed	Reviewed What is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit?
Apr 5	reviewed	No Action Needed Who are the morning stars in Job 38:7?
Apr 5	reviewed	Reviewed Did Jephthah actually sacrifice his daughter?
Mar 31	comment	“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 @brilliant I meant that the spelling of the word has nothing to do with its grammatical number in Syriac Aramaic. Only the diacritics influence its number. I haven't had a chance to look at it yet (Happy Easter!)
Mar 31	comment	“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 grammatical number = singular/plural
Mar 31	comment	Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 @caseyr547 I would argue that there are no direct correlations in English for any Hebrew grammatical categories. We simply must approximate as best as possible. Glad you found the answer helpful.
Mar 31	comment	Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 Your discussion/contention seems more philosophical than grammatical/textual. I am responding solely to the latter.
Mar 31	comment	Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3 @caseyr547 It's just a simple finite verb. With Qal, the subject of the verb is is the agent/actor (active). The problem with saying that "God caused himself to say" is that this is precisely what the Hiphil conveys. You would thus be reading the Hiphil sense into the Qal. Remember that we are attempting to approximate Hebrew grammar, there are at times no direct correlations in the English language. we cannot read one category into another (i.e. the Hiphil into the Qal). "God said" is the best translation for this reason. To say more is a confusion of grammatical categories.
Mar 31	comment	“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 I need to look at that again. Thanks for pointing that out. But even so, that doesn't affect number I don't believe.