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Orthodox Christian interested in religious/ecclesiastical history, Patristics, music, digital forensics, technology, NLP/CL, Python, etc.


Jul
11
comment According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
P.S. I appreciate the bounty ;)
Jul
11
comment According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
It's just that there is a lot more in the tradition than just scripture - specifically how we worship (Divine Liturgy / Divine Service).
Jul
11
comment According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
I don't think you'll find any true, pure, and perfect tradition. But no smart Roman Catholic or Eastern Orthodox theologian would assert that their tradition is perfect. It is self correcting, later decisions change earlier ones - and this trend will continue. That's part of the process, we must give our ancestors a vote ("democracy of the dead"), that doesn't mean we allow a "tyranny of the dead" whereby we must blindly follow tradition (this is where my Western/Lutheran tendencies come into play).
Jul
11
comment According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
I don't believe that anyone truly is free from tradition. We simply have different traditions. For Lutherans, that tradition is the decisions of most of the early ecumenical councils and the Lutheran Confessions. For Catholics that is all of the ecumenical councils prior to 1054 plus all those in the Roman Catholic Church thereafter. For Eastern Orthodox it is all those prior to 1054 plus all those in the East thereafter. No one on agrees on which tradition. My point is simply that everyone agrees that there is a tradition.
Jul
7
comment According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
I look forward to the discussion, hopefully I'll catch you in chat one of these days ;)
Jul
7
revised According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
added 138 characters in body
Jul
7
revised According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
added 60 characters in body
Jul
7
answered According to Scripture, how should we interpret Scripture?
Jun
18
comment What does the prohibition against women speaking in church in 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 mean?
Yeah, my keyboard only has English so I tend to forget to hit the w for omega and sometimes I don't hit the H for eta, but rather the E, which I honestly should know better since that is actually the proper uppercase letter, but meh. I can write it correctly :P But seriously, I do appreciate you fixing my Greek typos :)
Jun
17
comment What does the prohibition against women speaking in church in 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 mean?
@Kazark I don't know how to type accents on my computer, so I just type the letters. My failure to add accents says more about my technological abilities than my ability to understand and exegete the Greek language. Thanks for editing them. I only changed one of your edits back to my original wording ("the bible contains the Word of God"), as I intended it this way. Changing it to "is" the Word of God changes the theology of my statement, which was intended the way it was originally written.
Jun
17
revised What does the prohibition against women speaking in church in 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 mean?
I agree with most of the edits as they were grammar/spelling related, but one of the edits actually changed the theology of what I was saying so I returned it to my original phrase.
Apr
23
answered Connotation of πλεονεξία in Colossians 3:5
Apr
13
comment How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?
I agree that the interpretation of this verse may involve having to read theological bias into the text. I appreciate the defense of your viewpoint and the link to the article on Wikipedia. I'd love to hear you elaborate on your thoughts on the other question also ;)
Apr
13
comment How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?
Thanks for the clarification, I voted it up.
Apr
13
comment How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?
Elaboration on the theological differences might be better here: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/7151/… - but I also would really like to hear why you think this text leans more towards propitiation if you feel that you can respond solely based on the textual context.
Apr
13
comment How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?
I really appreciated your response, Andy. I find it interesting that you consider propitiation and expiation to be complementary perspectives and both viable translation options for ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion). I recently had someone tell me that he thought these views were antithetical. I suppose elaboration on this might be better here: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/7151/…
Apr
13
comment How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?
I'm not trying to be argumentative, I am genuinely confused about this passage because I have always been taught propitiation but recently heard a good argument for expiation (in a way that is antithetical to propitiation).
Apr
13
comment How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?
Please elaborate on why "propitiation" addresses both the context and the theology of the act. What specifically in the context of the passage points to this definition over others? I am very interested in what you refer to as the "cycle of wrath and appeasement," please elaborate on the context and how it points to this view of God's mind being changed (appeased) because of Christ's death (propitiation) versus sin and death being nullified by Christ's sacrificial death (expiation). It may be that both are fitting, but I am curious why you chose propitiation over expiation.
Apr
12
revised How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?
updated example and link to corresponding question on Christianity SE
Apr
12
asked How should ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) be translated in Romans 3:25?