meta user
network profile
| bio | website | rockadoodee.com |
|---|---|---|
| location | Chicagoland | |
| age | ||
| visits | member for | 1 year, 3 months |
| seen | 11 hours ago | |
| stats | profile views | 24 |
Orthodox Christian interested in religious/ecclesiastical history, Patristics, music, digital forensics, technology, NLP/CL, Python, etc.
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Apr 29 |
revised |
Why did the Masoretes take away 100 (or 50) years from the age of the fathers at their first sons' dates of birth? added chart |
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Apr 23 |
revised |
Does John distinguish between terms for love? clarified position |
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Apr 19 |
revised |
Does John distinguish between terms for love? deleted 61 characters in body |
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Apr 19 |
awarded | Altruist |
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Apr 19 |
comment |
Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17” @Qoheleth-Tech I have Carson's book on my shelf and never thought to reference it. Dough! Thanks for the pointer! |
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Apr 18 |
comment |
How should the Valley of Hinnom be translated? I'm intrigued by this question, but I'm not sure I understand it entirely. You seem to answer your own question. I can definitely help you understand the terms (גהנום/גהנם / γέεννα), but I want to make sure that's what you're looking for before attempting. |
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Apr 18 |
awarded | Investor |
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Apr 18 |
revised |
Does John distinguish between terms for love? Incorrect apostrophe usage |
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Apr 18 |
answered | Does John distinguish between terms for love? |
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Apr 18 |
comment |
Does John distinguish between terms for love? Hannes, I appreciate that you are participating in this community! However, this question is specifically about two historical dialects of the Greek language and the specific Greek words in Johannine literature that are translated into English as "love." As it currently stands, this is not an answer to the question. Please consider revising your response. |
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Apr 17 |
revised |
What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? Removed anachronistic reference to οὐσία as nature |
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Apr 16 |
reviewed | Close How can the sacrifice of one animal atone for many? |
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Apr 15 |
revised |
What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? Added comment to answer at recommendation of swasheck |
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Apr 15 |
comment |
What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? @swasheck If I played on anything linguistically it would be that "being" (ὑπάρχων) in the form of God was natural (he was 'in the form of God'), while 'taking' (λαβών) the form of a slave was an active choice. |
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Apr 15 |
comment |
What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? @swasheck not particularly, just the role they play in each sentence. In v. 6 it is in the dative because of the preposition. In v. 7 it is in accusative because it is the direct object of the participle. The genitive 'slave' just modifies the object here to explain what type/kind of form was taken. Am I missing something? |
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Apr 15 |
comment |
Does the NT concept of grace exist in the OT? As written, this question is off topic for this site. Perhaps it could be edited to resolve this? |
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Apr 15 |
reviewed | No Action Needed The significance of the designations of families who will mourn in Zechariah 12 |
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Apr 15 |
answered | Who are the disciples to fear in Matthew 10:28? |
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Apr 15 |
comment |
What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? Let me know if you want to know more about any of the works referenced in the lexicon. I have a guide to the abbreviations used; I know they are not always clear. |
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Apr 15 |
answered | What are the evidences that 'morphe theou' in Philippians 2:6 means 'God's nature'? |
