meta user
network profile
| bio | website | rockadoodee.com |
|---|---|---|
| location | Chicagoland | |
| age | ||
| visits | member for | 1 year, 3 months |
| seen | 3 hours ago | |
| stats | profile views | 24 |
Orthodox Christian interested in religious/ecclesiastical history, Patristics, music, digital forensics, technology, NLP/CL, Python, etc.
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? @Mike it seems that many of the Syriac scholars we've been relying on are Nestorians - and that matters. |
|
Feb 13 |
revised |
What portions of the New Testament are purported to have originally been written in Aramaic? added link to refutation question |
|
Feb 13 |
asked | What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament? |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? @MonicaCellio see my answers here and here |
|
Feb 13 |
revised |
Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? added link |
|
Feb 13 |
asked | What portions of the New Testament are purported to have originally been written in Aramaic? |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? Yes, and it is hard to research because two groups have vested theological interests in the argument: Nestorians and Seventh Day Adventists. I am pretty sure my sources are from these two camps (aside from textual analysis), and this is important background information. |
|
Feb 13 |
revised |
Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? added 208 characters in body |
|
Feb 13 |
asked | Why is 'Sabbath' often plural in the Greek text (both LXX and NT) yet translated as if it were singular? |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 I still think this is the best answer to this question as it is written. Mine and Sarah's answers are more or less tangential. |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? Will do, I'll update my answer if I figure anything out. I am going to this conference this weekend, so I'll see if anyone there or at Princeton in general can help as well. |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? @Mike most of my sources for the number distinction are online forums and a Comcast-hosted website of dubious reliability. I could also be completely wrong. I'm using Logos software and the morphology appears when I highlight the words. I also went through the trouble of cross-referencing my findings on the Durkhana website using their morphology tools. Everything is tagged feminine singular emphatic noun for the relevant words in the Khabouris codex, but they have both singular and plural listed for Younan's text (but don't say which it is). I'm just trying to figure this out, haha |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? @Mike the problem is that I'm not so sure that my answer is reliable either :P |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 @brilliant it addresses a potential cause that might make knowing the answer to this question impossible, which IMHO is an important voice in the discussion. If the text was translated from Aramaic and there was no way of distinguishing whether 'Sabbath' was plural in each instance, then the Greek text would potentially contain errors and be the wrong platform to argue from. It's not really intended to be the accepted answer, just an important perspective to have in the pot. |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? I'm interested to see if Mike is correct, but I'm using the same lexicon (plus another one) and I don't see what he's seeing. Also, my source for the assertion of no distinction in number is possibly not scholarly, so I'd also like to find more support for that argument. |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? And the SEDRA 3 database has the morphology in every instance given by @SarahNoll as feminine singular emphatic nouns, which contradicts what you're saying. That's why I'm confused how we could both use the same resource and have it give us different morphology (the text is tagged as indicated in my answer). Can you show the actually morphology for Matthew 28:1, for instance? |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”? @Mike thanks! We're using the same lexicon, and I did see that same difference, but where does it say that the plural form means "week?" I found that same information in the index by inflected forms of the lexeme, but nothing specifically says that the plural form means "week" from what I can tell, nor from your screenshot (I'm genuinely curious). The only difference between the two is the Syame (plural) dots above the letter Beth - but I also question whether these were added until the 6th century. |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 @brilliant I updated my post to reflect this |
|
Feb 13 |
comment |
“the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 @brilliant true, and that is an important distinction |
|
Feb 13 |
answered | “the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 |
