4,513 reputation
11651
bio website metasecular.com
location Chicagoland
age 90
visits member for 2 years, 6 months
seen 19 hours ago

Orthodox Christian, g33k, ham radio operator, musician, etc. This profile does not reflect my real age ;)


Jun
4
comment How does the Septuagint differ from the Masoretic text for Isaiah 7:14?
I'm not too sure what you mean by different vowels since the LXX is in Greek while the MT is in Hebrew, and the vowel pointings in the MT weren't added until after the LXX was translated (in fact, the Hebrew vowel pointings probably weren't added until the 5th century CE or later). This is why it is important to first read introductory material before asking here. This has not always been the case here, but this is the way other SE sites work.
Jun
4
comment How does the Septuagint differ from the Masoretic text for Isaiah 7:14?
@curiousdannii I made an edit to focus on a specific text. Concerning the basics of textual criticism and LXX studies, users should learn that elsewhere before asking here (see book recommendations) or at least ask narrow enough questions so that introductory material need not be regurgitated. See How can we attract high-quality Biblical scholars and still be welcoming to interested amateurs? If the edit is acceptable, I will reopen the question. This will provide a specific example of what you were originally asking about. Let me know
Jun
3
comment How does the Septuagint differ from the Masoretic text for Isaiah 7:14?
@curiousdannii for introductory works, I recommend starting with Wegner's A Student's Guide to Textual Criticism of the Bible: Its History, Methods and Results and Jobes' & Silva's Invitation to the Septuagint
May
30
comment What is the meaning of “Place your bread on the grave of the righteous” in Tobit 4:17 NRSV?
@FrankLuke very good. There is so much more that could be said, but time....
May
30
comment What is “the gift of God” in Eph 2:8
This was an excellent answer until the anachronistic etymological section under "Paleontological Exegesis", which appears to read the English meaning of the word back into the Greek then justify it because they had the practice that came to be referenced by the English word.
May
30
comment What happened with the translation of 1 Samuel 1:24?
P.S. I am a member of an OCA parish that is part of the Romanian Orthodox Episcopate of America :)
May
30
comment What happened with the translation of 1 Samuel 1:24?
Unfortunately, we don't allow Questions about interpretations of passages in other languages outside of the Biblical languages. However, you can translate it into English and discuss the implications in English, which may help you with the Romanian. I've edited the question to 'footnote' the Romanian to emphasize the English and original language translation of the text. This is the general pattern we've followed in the past with these sorts of questions as well. Hristos a înviat! ;)
May
30
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
This stuff is pure gold, @Davïd. Thanks
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
of course there are always those who try to explain away the contradictions, so it would be fruitless to go back and forth. But the reality is that the text has been altered and clearly shows multiple stages of composition.
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
There's also of course the issue of anachronistic names of geographical locations and other obvious glosses.
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
my favorite is in the instructions for preparing the Passover lamb where in Exodus it says to cook it with fire and to not boil it, then in Deuteronomy it says they boiled it. Then the author of Chronicles realized this and reconciled the texts by saying they 'boiled' the lamb 'with fire' - a classic rabbinic way of handling such contradiction. I'll never forget that day in Hebrew class, it was used as a somewhat humorous anecdote.
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
I think the documentary hypothesis might be onto something, but I also think Moses likely penned some of the Pentateuch for it to be attributed to him. But things like contradictions between instructions and differing accounts lead me to think Torah is a collective work/compilation.
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
no problem, I just like learning new things and reading :P
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
This question came about from some discussion in the Library.
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
This question came about from some discussion in the Library.
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
Good point and interesting answer (+1). I've heard the argument that Eve likely expected an immediate fulfillment from her son. So you think Moses recorded his own death account also?!? Any papers you can link to for more on that idea?
May
29
comment What is the historical basis for viewing Genesis 3:15 as the 'protoevangelium'?
Oddly, I was just adding the LXX to the question to encourage this observation. Looks like we were writing at the same time (I was going through some of the textual variances and decided only to include the base LXX text in the question). Great answer! +1
May
29
comment What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?
@ScottS I follow ya, that's why I don't run with it 100%. But I read their ideas, think about it - and keep trusting the Church. Same reason I tend to trust the Byzantine Greek texts passed down in the lectionaries (usually the Kr/f35 group) more than Alexandrian texts.
May
29
comment What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?
@ScottS very interesting. I vacillate between a similar position and the latest ideas from higher criticism.
May
28
comment Why did Jesus did not utter the whole phrase “ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν” in John 8:58?
Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange! Be sure to take our site tour to learn more about us. We're a little different from other sites. I don't know if we can speculate as to why Jesus did not say something, but I'll be interested to see what kinds of answers this attracts. See also Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?.