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Nov
5
comment Exo. 2:12: Did Moses commit murder?
Simple: the Hebrew men were merely brawling; the Egyptian was possibly killing the Hebrew man.
Oct
27
comment What mark did the Lord put on Cain so no one would kill him?
You give no source for the speculation that Cain’s os mark is the same as the tav mark in Ezekiel.
Oct
27
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
@user6053, I’m entirely unable to follow the argument you’re making. I don’t need Covenant Theology 101, but it would be helpful to say, “Based on ‹framework›, Jeremiah’s use of the term covenant means ‹meaning› and relates to other covenants ‹however›. Therefore, the ‘new covenant’ means ‹whatever›; it does/doesn’t apply solely to Jews;” (or, “in this context ‘Israel’ means ‹whomever›;”) “it is ‘written upon their hearts’ ‹thusly›; it reaffirms/modifies Israel’s rôle ‹however›; and it therefore preserves/changes/replaces the Torah ‹like so›”.
Oct
27
comment What mark did the Lord put on Cain so no one would kill him?
It’s a plausible guess, but on this site a sourced argument would be more appropriate. If you can find the Midrashic literature on the topic you might find a source that agrees with your guess, perhaps with more of an explanation.
Oct
27
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
@user6053, even putting myself in the mind-frame to follow the logic of a Christian argument, I am entirely unable to see in your response an answer to the posted question. Is there any chance you might edit your post to make it clearer just what it is you’re saying and how it related to the original post?
Oct
27
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
@BlessedGeek, the answer also conflates the “fences around the law” that the Pharisee rabbis instituted with the orally-transmitted Divine Tradition that they maintained, two things the rabbis taught but were very careful to differentiate. (Though perhaps Paul is responsible for this confusion. He claimed to have studied in Rabban Gammliel’s academy, but I don’t think he understood what was being taught.)
Oct
27
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
I disagree with the close vote: these questions are so tightly linked I could not even give a simple answer to any without addressing all.
Aug
14
comment What biblical figure was present during the dinosaurs?
Every Biblical figure coexisted with dinosaurs: birds are dinosaurs.
Aug
14
comment Who were the Pharisees?
Regarding the use of the term perushim, Pharisees, my personal conjecture: Josephus implies that was the term in use at the time. The Talmud was written some centuries later at which point the libelous definition might have taken root, so that word was avoided. Alternatively, the term might have been used as a political identifier both for the Rabbis and for the unlearned folk who followed them, so a more narrowly-defined word (chaver, a “fellow” of the study-hall) was used instead.
Aug
14
comment Who were the Pharisees?
@BruceJames, this discussion touches strongly on my answer; note that I’ve added links to the Soncino translation of Sotah 22b there. I’ll disagree with you on the value of that translation: while being far more difficult to read, it preserves the “feel” of the Aramaic original quite well.
Apr
1
comment Who was Neri, father of Shealtiel?
Unless you’re looking to unify the lineage lists (in which case neri = “my light” & malki = “my king” might be useful) there seems to be exactly no information on Neri.
Mar
24
comment How should 2 Cor 5:10 be interpreted, in light of Isa 43:25?
An answer to this question would require (1) a discussion of the various kinds of sin, (2) discussion of the results of sin: which are punishments, which are consequences, then (3) a discussion of the kinds of forgiveness. All without resorting to doctrine. This question belongs on ✝.SE.
Jan
21
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
Yes, David; Revision 5 cleared up what you meant. +1
Jan
21
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
The difference, @JackDouglas, is whether the satan, the adversarial angel, is obedient to God or rebellious. The whole idea of rebellious angels questionable in Judaism; Maimonides & Nachmanides most famously held it was impossible (though for different reasons). (The matter of the nefillim is off topic for this site, but has been discussed on ✡.SE.)
Jan
19
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
Please clarify: “this is one of the things that makes the Septuagint so important, and you can see from the bit quoted above that this is absent from the Greek Isaiah.” — just what is “absent from the Greek Isaiah”?
Jan
19
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
@H3br3wHamm3r81, Jews believe the satan is an agent provocateur but is thereby doing what God commanded him to, not “fallen” or “rebellious”
Jan
16
comment Could the “tree of knowledge of good and evil” mean “tree of intelligence”?
Sermon aside, what is your take on the OP’s proposed explanation? Is it plausible? Are there flaws in the logic? (Other than “I prefer this other interpretation”.)
Jan
16
comment Could the “tree of knowledge of good and evil” mean “tree of intelligence”?
Note that in Biblical Hebrew, the usual form is “from ‹one small thing› to ‹another small thing›”. Example: Genesis 14:23, “from a thread to a shoelace”.
Jan
8
comment Was or wasn’t Shem’s son Arphaxad born on the ark?
Note that Shem was not necessarily the oldest of Noah’s sons.
Jan
1
comment Where does the extra information about Melchizedek come from in Hebrews 7?
There is reference in Scripture to people blessing God, which would seem to negate your logic.