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seen Jul 15 at 15:04

m.a. biblical studies (new testament)

thesis: the grammatical and cultural role of luke's portrayal of possessions in luke-acts


Nov
13
comment Why “Inn” for “Kataluma” in Luke 2:7
Thank you for the answer. I'd really like to see more reliance on that was actually said in the book. E.g. which facts did you find persuasive and why?
Nov
13
comment If a “house divided cannot stand” how did non-disciples cast out demons?
I'd like to see you flesh out the logical argument in the first two sentences and omit the conjecture that follows.
Nov
13
comment If a “house divided cannot stand” how did non-disciples cast out demons?
this is a theological interpretation and i understand where you're going with it. however, if you visit our meta site you'll see our expectations for answers a bit more clearly.
Nov
12
comment What does the word, “World”, mean in John 3:16 ,in the light of John 17:9
Good start. Not looking for a biblical theology of the word nor are we looking for an overview of word uses
Aug
22
comment What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma?
Yes it is grammatically correct and I've seen some draw parallels between ruach and sophia as both feminine gendered words. However, any attempts to draw specific conclusions as to the significance of how a word is gendered is severely misguided.
Aug
21
comment Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”
@FrankLuke well that settles that. I didn't check it so I'm deleting my comment thread.
Aug
19
comment Is “wait” in Isaiah 40:31 active or passive?
@ColinFine yes. anachronistic fallacy akin to asking when someone saw a floating bug that looked like a piece of butter flying.
Aug
13
comment Jesus and the cross
Impalement was the preferred method of the Assyrians.
Aug
9
comment James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”
+1. At least one notable scholar sees James as full of agrarian "Semitisms" that would appeal to diaspora Jews. This is one of them.
Aug
7
comment Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
It's a present participle which is probably why the Vulgate translate as present. Modern English translations, with the gift of more advanced Greek scholarship understand the participle to be subordinate to the main verb ἔλαβον. I still think, though, that the participle is best rendered as a substantive.
Aug
7
comment In John 3:16, is the word believe a continous action for everlasting life?
Good answer and +1 from me. I appreciate you drawing out the distinction between present participle and the aorist. I do question the relevance of Mark as he is a different author, but the point is taken Nonetheless. I was wondering if you'd be willing to highlight the use of the subjunctive and, perhaps, the function of the ἵνα clause (content, purpose, result, etc) for a bounty.
Aug
7
comment Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
Sorry. I typed this on a phone and my thumbs are too fat :).
Aug
4
comment Has the NIV incorrectly added “had” in Luke 10:40?
I see fair enough. Deleting my own comments as outdated
Aug
2
comment Has the NIV incorrectly added “had” in Luke 10:40?
It's possible that you're overemphasizing the "had." It could simply be a function of the English language and how the committee chose to make it more readable. It can be read without imperatival or subjunctive force. There is a range of words that the committee could have chosen if they wished to draw out the urgency. "Must" and "need" are the first two that come to mind.
Jul
18
comment What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
If you're asking if the main clause/verb has a stronger dependency on "means" vs. "manner" then I'm honestly not sure. Anecdotal evidence derived from English examples would seem to lead in that direction, but this may be more of a question for linguistics.se.
Jul
17
comment What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
@JackDouglas ... what do you mean by "weaker?"
Jul
17
comment Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?
@hannes I'm having a hard time following all of this. How does this actually answer the question? Please bring the concepts/assertions that you're setting forth to bear on the question as it stands and please do it in the answer. As it stands it seems like you're substituting the means of exploration (dia ti ... "through/for what?") with the content of the exploration itself. It seems like a stretch to correlate in investigative question with the actual content.
Jul
17
comment What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
@Dan thanks. you seem to have it well in hand.
Jul
17
comment What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
... well i guess it all depends on your perspectives vis-à-vis Ordo salutis ...
May
7
comment How should ἐκκλησίαις be translated in 1 Corinthians 14:34?
for all the heat this question has generated, i'm just glad that nobody committed the etymological fallacy of digging too far into calling them "called out ones."