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m.a. biblical studies (new testament)

thesis: the grammatical and cultural role of luke's portrayal of possessions in luke-acts


Aug
7
revised Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
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Aug
7
comment Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
It's a present participle which is probably why the Vulgate translate as present. Modern English translations, with the gift of more advanced Greek scholarship understand the participle to be subordinate to the main verb ἔλαβον. I still think, though, that the participle is best rendered as a substantive.
Aug
7
comment In John 3:16, is the word believe a continous action for everlasting life?
Good answer and +1 from me. I appreciate you drawing out the distinction between present participle and the aorist. I do question the relevance of Mark as he is a different author, but the point is taken Nonetheless. I was wondering if you'd be willing to highlight the use of the subjunctive and, perhaps, the function of the ἵνα clause (content, purpose, result, etc) for a bounty.
Aug
7
comment Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
Sorry. I typed this on a phone and my thumbs are too fat :).
Aug
7
revised Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
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Aug
7
answered Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
Aug
4
comment Has the NIV incorrectly added “had” in Luke 10:40?
I see fair enough. Deleting my own comments as outdated
Aug
2
comment Has the NIV incorrectly added “had” in Luke 10:40?
It's possible that you're overemphasizing the "had." It could simply be a function of the English language and how the committee chose to make it more readable. It can be read without imperatival or subjunctive force. There is a range of words that the committee could have chosen if they wished to draw out the urgency. "Must" and "need" are the first two that come to mind.
Jul
24
reviewed Close Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
Jul
23
reviewed Reviewed What “is lacking in Christ's afflictions” according to Paul?
Jul
23
revised What “is lacking in Christ's afflictions” according to Paul?
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Jul
22
reviewed Leave Open Has the referent in Isaiah 53 ever been interpreted as anything non-human?
Jul
19
reviewed No Action Needed Was Jesus anointed once or twice on the feet with perfume?
Jul
19
reviewed Close How many people were killed by violence in the old testament?
Jul
19
reviewed Close Is John 3:18 the words of Jesus, or of John?
Jul
18
comment What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
If you're asking if the main clause/verb has a stronger dependency on "means" vs. "manner" then I'm honestly not sure. Anecdotal evidence derived from English examples would seem to lead in that direction, but this may be more of a question for linguistics.se.
Jul
17
comment What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
@JackDouglas ... what do you mean by "weaker?"
Jul
17
comment Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?
@hannes I'm having a hard time following all of this. How does this actually answer the question? Please bring the concepts/assertions that you're setting forth to bear on the question as it stands and please do it in the answer. As it stands it seems like you're substituting the means of exploration (dia ti ... "through/for what?") with the content of the exploration itself. It seems like a stretch to correlate in investigative question with the actual content.
Jul
17
comment What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?
@Dan thanks. you seem to have it well in hand.
Jul
17
answered What range of meaning is allowed by διὰ in Ephesians 2:8?