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m.a. biblical studies (new testament)

thesis: the grammatical and cultural role of luke's portrayal of possessions in luke-acts


Aug
20
answered Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”
Aug
19
comment Is “wait” in Isaiah 40:31 active or passive?
@ColinFine yes. anachronistic fallacy akin to asking when someone saw a floating bug that looked like a piece of butter flying.
Aug
14
reviewed Approve suggested edit on Can “יָתוֹם” designate someone who has lost his father but not his mother?
Aug
13
comment Jesus and the cross
Impalement was the preferred method of the Assyrians.
Aug
9
comment James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”
+1. At least one notable scholar sees James as full of agrarian "Semitisms" that would appeal to diaspora Jews. This is one of them.
Aug
7
revised Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
added 2471 characters in body
Aug
7
comment Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
It's a present participle which is probably why the Vulgate translate as present. Modern English translations, with the gift of more advanced Greek scholarship understand the participle to be subordinate to the main verb ἔλαβον. I still think, though, that the participle is best rendered as a substantive.
Aug
7
comment In John 3:16, is the word believe a continous action for everlasting life?
Good answer and +1 from me. I appreciate you drawing out the distinction between present participle and the aorist. I do question the relevance of Mark as he is a different author, but the point is taken Nonetheless. I was wondering if you'd be willing to highlight the use of the subjunctive and, perhaps, the function of the ἵνα clause (content, purpose, result, etc) for a bounty.
Aug
7
comment Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
Sorry. I typed this on a phone and my thumbs are too fat :).
Aug
7
revised Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
deleted 1 characters in body; added 317 characters in body
Aug
7
answered Does John 1:12 identify believers of the past only, or past and present tense believers?
Aug
4
comment Has the NIV incorrectly added “had” in Luke 10:40?
I see fair enough. Deleting my own comments as outdated
Aug
2
comment Has the NIV incorrectly added “had” in Luke 10:40?
It's possible that you're overemphasizing the "had." It could simply be a function of the English language and how the committee chose to make it more readable. It can be read without imperatival or subjunctive force. There is a range of words that the committee could have chosen if they wished to draw out the urgency. "Must" and "need" are the first two that come to mind.
Jul
24
reviewed Close Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
Jul
23
reviewed Reviewed What “is lacking in Christ's afflictions” according to Paul?
Jul
23
revised What “is lacking in Christ's afflictions” according to Paul?
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Jul
22
reviewed Leave Open Has the referent in Isaiah 53 ever been interpreted as anything non-human?
Jul
19
reviewed No Action Needed Was Jesus anointed once or twice on the feet with perfume?
Jul
19
reviewed Close How many people were killed by violence in the old testament?
Jul
19
reviewed Close Is John 3:18 the words of Jesus, or of John?