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seen Dec 23 at 6:29

m.a. biblical studies (new testament)

thesis: the grammatical and cultural role of luke's portrayal of possessions in luke-acts


Feb
4
reviewed Satisfactory Does Luke put the Twelve in a negative light in Acts 6?
Feb
1
comment Does Peter allude to the stones removed in the Maccabbean revolt?
My initial response is that this is temple imagery but that its not likely related to the revolt. The audience profile doesn't really fit and would have been lost on them.
Feb
1
comment Where should the Messianic application begin and end in Jacob's blessing to Judah?
Please cite your sources. "Most everyone" is quite broad and such unsubstantiated claims erode credibility. Additionally, you're falling into at least one fallacy with your "no purpose" statement in the fourth paragraph. As this is a site for hermeneutics, and not just prophetic interpretation of historical events with reckless disregard for the significance of their historical and literary placement, please ensure that you cover these areas. Even Christian exegetes recognize the significance of these disciplines.
Jan
30
comment Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?
Hiya. You have some very good thoughts in here but many of them are incomprehensible due to formatting. I was wondering if you would mind going through the answer and cleaning it up. Primarily, I'd like to see you stick with either Unicode Greek or the transliteration consistently throughout. Also, your πρὸς τὸ statement seems somewhat arbitrary (though correct) after a few citations of Matthew. I'd rather see a reference to Mounce or even something that says "Greek grammarians such as Mounce note ..."
Jan
30
answered Is Luke's “Theophilus” An Actual Person or an Allegorical Person
Jan
30
reviewed Approve Was Origen Adamantius an “allegorist” in the modern sense of the word?
Jan
30
reviewed Approve What is the “New Hermeneutic”?
Jan
29
comment To what extent do deductive approaches consider authorial intent?
Finally, I will say that if God is all of the omnis that we Christians claim that he is, then he still has jurisdiction over "biblical scholars [who] to do nothing but enforce their unbelief on scriptures not knowing that they are filled with the faith of the original author." Good can still come from that but you need to be discerning as to what the "good" is. Overall, +1 from me.
Jan
29
comment To what extent do deductive approaches consider authorial intent?
I also agree with your bolded paragraph, though I'd back off at the "true dogmatic pressures derived from previous inductions upon the text are required" because it's not necessarily a requirement to apply critical methods to a text. It is a requirement if you're applying critical methods in order to arrive at a theological conclusion and you wish that conclusion to be fully integrated with your extant theology :).
Jan
29
comment To what extent do deductive approaches consider authorial intent?
A few quick comments. Deductive study is "topical." It is the approach by which we start with a concept and search through a corpus finding places where the works within that corpus address that concept. Inductive study relies on drawing conclusions from observations on the text. Both are quite susceptible to misuse which is why I wholeheartedly agree with your encouragement to use both. I will say that starting with deduction shouldn't be so strongly pressed because tremendous benefit can also come from induction.
Jan
29
comment Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?
I guess I was just hoping for more of the research and less of the results. Also, I noted that I'd like to see a bit more interaction with the texts. That's the point of hermeneutics. The distillation is nice, but belongs better in the Christianity site. The process (which you've clearly done) is appropriate for here. I share your sentiment but would just like for you to share the research too.
Jan
28
answered What is the “New Hermeneutic”?
Jan
28
reviewed Approve Was Origen Adamantius an “allegorist” in the modern sense of the word?
Jan
28
comment Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?
Fraser - thanks for the answer. I've noticed a couple of good answers that you've made and this one just seems a bit different. It's not blatantly incorrect, but it's also not really up to the standards you've set for yourself or for this site. I'd recommend a bit more research and textual evidence so that you can either supplement the current answer or critically interact with it.
Jan
25
awarded  Custodian
Jan
25
reviewed Reviewed Does πορνεία mean premarital sex in 1 Corinthians 5-7?
Jan
25
answered Based on recent manuscript discoveries, is the LXX more reliable than the MT?
Jan
25
comment Who is speaking in Song of Solomon 8:6-7?
@Caleb you did a great job. Much better now
Jan
24
comment Who is speaking in Song of Solomon 8:6-7?
You do realize that you're eliminating a wide range of scholarship with the a priori assessment that this work is, in fact, allegorical. As such, I fear that there may be gaps in the exegesis and interpretation.
Jan
24
comment Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?
The link you provided is a truly fascinating rant and has quite a few logical fallacies. I'm posting this as a comment because it's not directly related to the text, but the logical fallacy upon which this is based is painful. The author notes that he's using the "biblical" definition of a few words, but uses Strong's. I'm not against Strong's, but I'm not going to say that it's "inspired" or the only resource available. Bauer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature