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m.a. biblical studies (new testament)

thesis: the grammatical and cultural role of luke's portrayal of possessions in luke-acts


Feb
20
reviewed Close Is synoptic parallelism a valid hermeneutic?
Feb
20
comment Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?
+1. The "aorist active imperative reading (τηρήσατε)" has a wider geographic distribution of attestation which may be the rationale behind the change. At any rate, the subjunctive introduces a degree of uncertainty, and may have greater governance over the entire clause. Ergo, the imperative can't be evaluated in a vacuum but as subordinate to the subjunctive. Theologically (Christian) it makes more sense for ἀγαπᾶτέ to govern, because otherwise the passage would read, "You MUST keep my commandments if you might love me."
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 i've proposed an edit to the question that seems to more clearly ask what you're driving at. You've already noted the variants in your question. To make this a question about probability seems off-topic because that's not what you're asking.
Feb
18
revised Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
more to the point
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
You can make the question clearer by explicitly stating that this is a question that has nothing to do with the variants between NA27 and TR. Simply rephrase the question along the lines of "What are the implications of accepting the minority variant in this passage?"
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
It seems like doing this with a textual variant is doing it in a vacuum. "Which is more probable?" is a very different question than "what are the implications of accepting the weaker variant(s)?" We could go into biblical and systematic theologies of the redemption of all of creation, or the symbolism of things in Revelation, but that's a separate question altogether.
Feb
18
comment In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?
Here are some that I found. 1, 2
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 i deleted my original comment after reading your edit.
Feb
18
comment In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?
Holy smokes. There it is. I wonder if that's not an IT error ;)
Feb
18
comment In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?
Which version of TR are you using? I'm only finding ὑμᾶς.
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
But it is based on the context. I guess I'm having trouble understanding what you're after. Are you after the whole "living creatures" being included in the ruling party?
Feb
18
revised Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
added 570 characters in body
Feb
18
comment Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
Present vs. Future is not as difficult as the NET translation notes make it seem.
Feb
18
reviewed Reject In the Peshitta NT, what was the original meaning of the word often translated “first day of the week”?
Feb
18
answered Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10?
Feb
15
reviewed Reviewed What does “freedom of the glory of the children of God” mean (Romans 8:21)?
Feb
15
revised What does “freedom of the glory of the children of God” mean (Romans 8:21)?
edited formatting and added link
Feb
14
comment Did Jesus endorse tithing for all when addressing the Pharisees?
This has the makings of a good answer. I was hoping you could work in a conversation about the actual texts in question. You make a leap from Torah to Paulos with a statement that, "the general concept behind tithing is support of a ministry." I think that the 1 Cor. 9 references allow you to make that transition, but I'd like to see how that loops back to address the actual question of Jesus' interaction with tithing and wealth.
Feb
13
comment Which hermeneutics follow the tradition of Friedrich Schleiermacher?
@Nowhereman I'm looking forward to seeing more of your answers on this site. Additionally, your research sounds fascinating and I should like to read some of it.
Feb
11
comment What “is lacking in Christ's afflictions” according to Paul?
I wish this answer got more attention. It's quite good and concise.