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m.a. biblical studies (new testament)

thesis: the grammatical and cultural role of luke's portrayal of possessions in luke-acts


Sep
3
awarded  Popular Question
Aug
29
comment How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?
perseus was neat back in the day. it'd be nice if they could refresh with some more ... useful technology and mss. nonetheless, it seems that this question simply boils down to "why did they translators choose 'glory' and not 'expectation'?" is that fair?
Jul
11
reviewed Reject suggested edit on What does “teachers of the Torah” mean in 1 Timothy 1:7?
Jul
11
reviewed Reject suggested edit on Why does Matthew link Jesus' healing miracles to the title “Son of David?”
Jul
2
awarded  Curious
Jun
3
reviewed Reject suggested edit on Why does Matthew link Jesus' healing miracles to the title “Son of David?”
May
20
comment Romans 5:1 and peace with God
this is a fun and interesting question, but not eminently answerable in this format. we could find a wealth of opinions on this and not arrive at a definitive conclusion.
Mar
4
comment In Heb 6:4-6, what have those once enlightened “fallen away” from?
Additionally, I've found that weasel words such as "clearly" work against your intent. The purpose of the site is to inform and not persuade and these sorts of words are used to persuade in the absence of information. Finally, I understand the perspective that you're presenting, but I'd also appreciate academic interaction with other perspectives and more recent scholarship.
Feb
26
revised What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?
deleted 25 characters in body
Feb
25
comment What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?
@David very good point in this case. I was attempting to create a generic example of the active voice but used the specific verb. I see how this leads to an incorrect conclusion. I will edit when I'm not mobile.
Feb
25
answered What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?
Feb
25
revised What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?
edited tags
Feb
24
comment What is the significance of the perfect ειρηκεν in 2 Cor 12:9?
There is a good question in here and I'm working up an answer to that question. The latter question seems a bit subjective to me ("...other places that Paul uses the perfect where it seems ..."). No worries, though. I'll see what I can come up with for the former question.
Feb
19
reviewed Reject suggested edit on What does 'Salt of the Earth' mean?
Feb
1
comment How does the act of “foot washing” lead to the act of “sexual intercourse”?
@rhetoritician fair, and I see your facetiousness. For anyone who wants to actually use that, I would say that it's a totally different milieu. :)
Jan
30
revised What is Luke's purpose for recording this narrative and ultimately Jesus' reason to express this account of the rich man and Lazarus to those present?
added 481 characters in body
Jan
30
comment How does the act of “foot washing” lead to the act of “sexual intercourse”?
uncovering and washing of the "feet" was a common ANE idiom for exposing the genitalia. this is why ruth 3 is so controversial in the academic circles. i dont have my specific sources on hand right now which is why this is not an answer, but a comment.
Jan
30
answered What is Luke's purpose for recording this narrative and ultimately Jesus' reason to express this account of the rich man and Lazarus to those present?
Jan
15
reviewed No Action Needed Jacob's name is Israel. So why is he still called Jacob?
Jan
15
reviewed No Action Needed How does Jesus' argument from David and the show bread work?