12,779 reputation
54279
bio website frankluke.com
location Knoxville, IA
age 38
visits member for 2 years, 10 months
seen yesterday

I am a web programmer by day (PHP) and work on sermons and teaching material in the evenings.

I attended Assemblies of God Theological Seminary in Springfield, Missouri, for a Master of Arts in Theological Studies and a Master of Divinity. I am an associate pastor at a small church in Iowa. While in seminary, my emphasis was on Old Testament studies, but Dr. Wave Nunnally introduced me to the rabbinics. Those have become a special interest as well.

I also enjoy apologetics and was a very active member of the apologetics.org forum before it went defunct.


Dec
18
comment Was Achan's family punished along with Achan? or was he alone when punished?
@taurivalor, it's a translation issue. The Hebrew reader would roll with it and not even blink.
Dec
18
comment Interpretation of the dead ones in 1 Peter 4:6?
Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics. We aren't like other sites. We are expecting posts to work from the text and refrain from adding comments about ignoring what the text says.
Dec
18
comment Who or where is Meroz in Judges 5:23?
Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics! I'm done a little editing on your answer to fit in with how this network likes them. Please keep posting.
Dec
17
comment How is genre determined?
This should be one of the most important questions on the site.
Nov
23
comment Could the “tree of knowledge of good and evil” mean “tree of intelligence”?
@JackDouglas Right. If we know mentally what is good and what is evil then we can choose to do the good and avoid the evil.
Nov
22
comment Could the “tree of knowledge of good and evil” mean “tree of intelligence”?
@JackDouglas, I would say so. ""Behold, the man has become like one of us in knowing good and evil [by experiencing it]."
Oct
28
comment Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?
@Trig, yes, I can. It is well established in Biblical studies that Jews did use the personal name of God casually (YHWH, often translated "I Am"). In fact, in seeking to put a fence around the commandment not to take his name in vain, they used different circumlocutions (Matthew even hesitates to use "Kingdom of God" preferring "Kingdom of Heaven"). When Jesus says "I am" and they understand it to be blasphemy, the only king of blasphemy that fits is a claim to be God. Claiming to be pre-existent wouldn't cut it. Jesus using the name of God as his own would qualify were it untrue.
Oct
25
comment Do the Dead Sea Scrolls argue against Aramaic primacy?
I can go with official language, but it was also widely used. Josephus records a pun used by common soldiers on the walls of Jerusalem that only makes sense in Hebrew (the Aramaic equivalents of each phrase in the pun don't sound alike).
Oct
23
comment Do the Dead Sea Scrolls argue against Aramaic primacy?
There is a plethora of evidence from the rest of Israel that Mishnaic Hebrew was widely used. For example, 13 of the 26 Bar Cochva letters are written in Hebrew. These are letters dealing with military conquests, not religious matters.
Oct
22
comment What are the evidences that Luke is written after/before the fall of Jerusalem?
I address the pre-fall evidence for Luke-Acts here.
Oct
6
comment Revelation: Before or after AD70?
I would love to expand this to show both sides, but this came from notes of a term paper. I don't have the research notes anymore (where I explored both sides to come to this conclusion). The date wasn't the thesis, so I didn't have to explore both sides. This was a side issue. I'd have to do that research anew and time is compressed these days.
Oct
1
comment Was Luke's birth narrative written in response to Marcion's version of the gospel?
More information on an early Luke-Acts can be found in Did Luke use Josephus as a Source.
Sep
18
comment How would Elisha plowing with 12 oxen have been understood at the time of writing?
You clearly have a sense of humor that I appreciate. I also like how you briefly brought in the sons of the prophets. Since controlling 12 teams at a time is a lot of ambulatory hamburger to handle, part of me wonders if Elisha was managing a group of plowmen and that fact was simply expressed that way. Is there any way to determine one way or the other?
Sep
13
comment Are there any rules on which things in Revelation must be interpreted literally and which symbolically?
I recommend the book from the Counterpoints series: Four Views on Revelation. It lets each of the major views express itself and then the others critique with an opportunity for rebuttal. Nicely balanced.
Sep
12
comment Did the Holy Spirit leave Jesus when temptation was present in Luke 4?
Welcome to bh.se! This is a good question. I just formatted a little bit more to fit our site.
Sep
11
comment Jesus' command to hate your father and mother in Luke 14:26
We have a translation of the Greek Gospel of Luke into Aramaic. Examining the Greek of Luke shows a plethora of Hebraisms that do not exist in Aramaic and show that Luke's sources were Hebrew. Not having the original texts does not stop scholars from determining the original language from a translation. For example, even though the intertestamental writing of Tobit was originally only known in Aramaic and Greek, it was long theorized that it was originally written in Hebrew and translated. More recent discoveries have proven that correct.
Sep
11
comment Jesus' command to hate your father and mother in Luke 14:26
Only thing I disagree with here is invoking Aramaic Primacy when it isn't needed (but then it never is. Mishnaic Hebrew answers the same questions and so many more). Biblical and Mishnaic Hebrew use the word sone' with the same range of meaning.
Sep
11
comment What is the likely way in which ancient Hebrews would have understood “raqiya” in Gen 1:6?
Walter Kaiser addresses this in "The Old Testament Documents: Are They Reliable and Relevant?" I'll try to summarize his answer in the next couple of days.
Sep
3
comment “A god” or “God” in John 1:1?
@Yasky, Links made the first comment long. If nothing else, the Dead Sea Scrolls showed that Mishnaic Hebrew was alive and well. However, there were good reasons to write the NT in Greek.
Sep
3
comment “A god” or “God” in John 1:1?
@Yasky The NT was originally written in Koine Greek. Much of the Aramaic primacy argument relies on the unfounded thesis that Mishnaic Hebrew was not a language of the common people in the time of Jesus.