11,310 reputation
33771
bio website frankluke.com
location Knoxville, IA
age 37
visits member for 2 years, 6 months
seen 3 hours ago

I am a web programmer by day (PHP) and work on sermons and teaching material in the evenings.

I attended Assemblies of God Theological Seminary in Springfield, Missouri, for a Master of Arts in Theological Studies and a Master of Divinity. I am an associate pastor at a small church in Iowa. While in seminary, my emphasis was on Old Testament studies, but Dr. Wave Nunnally introduced me to the rabbinics. Those have become a special interest as well.

I also enjoy apologetics and was a very active member of the apologetics.org forum before it went defunct.


Mar
28
comment Bart D. Ehrman - respected critic?
@user1361315, the question is not do you see a difference (or even Islam), but did the early church? That would be a hard case to make credibly.
Mar
27
comment Bart D. Ehrman - respected critic?
@user1361315, Mark 16:6 does indeed speak of the resurrection. "But he said to them, “Do not be alarmed. You are looking for Jesus the Nazarene, who was crucified. He has been raised! He is not here. Look, there is the place where they laid him." [Emphasis added.] Whether Mark goes on to record post-resurrection appearances is another question.
Mar
26
comment What did priests do before the age of thirty?
Might be interesting to note that the age limit changes in the Hebrew Bible. Numbers 8:24–26 puts the lower bound at 25 and King David further reduced it in 1 Chronicles 23:27.
Mar
21
comment What evidence is there to show that Granville Sharp's Rule is authentic?
Yeah, you aren't going to get a better answer than the Wallace article linked above. He works through what the rule states and doesn't state, goes over undebated examples of when it applies in the NT, and examines Greek outside the Testament (classical and patristic uses). I'd call it an exhaustive article. Wallace writes in his conclusion: "Consequently, in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 we are compelled to recognize that, on a grammatical level, a heavy burden of proof rests with the one who wishes to deny that 'God and Savior' refers to one person, Jesus Christ."
Mar
21
comment How do you reconcile I Tim 2 saying that a woman is not to teach a man and the account of Priscilla and Aquila teaching Apollos who was a man?
Even though it ends in an "a" (which we think of as a feminine ending), Aquila was a man's name then. Priscilla was his wife.
Mar
20
comment Given the differences between Hebrew and Aramaic, how are the Aramaic sections identified?
I finally remembered what I was thinking. I learned Hebrew first, so the difference in articles looks from that point of view as a change from prefix to suffix.
Mar
19
comment Given the differences between Hebrew and Aramaic, how are the Aramaic sections identified?
@fdb, by changes, I did not mean to indicate that either was older than the other or that one was a modified form of the other.
Mar
19
comment Are there any Biblical scholars/textual critics who think the Gospels originally are in Greek?
@user1361315, Bruce, Daniel, and the vast majority of NT scholars believe Greek was first. Sorry I didn't specify.
Mar
19
comment Are there any Biblical scholars/textual critics who think the Gospels originally are in Greek?
@Rick, if you are interested in that topic, I highly recommend *Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus".
Mar
19
comment Are there any Biblical scholars/textual critics who think the Gospels originally are in Greek?
Bruce Metzger, Daniel Wallace, and almost all the others. And the Church Fathers do comment on this. Jerome and others say that Matthew alone was written in Hebrew and then translated into Greek. This was unique among the NT books. Greek was the language they spoke of the rest of the books being written in. And there are a handful of Greek manuscripts that are estimated to be within a century of their originals (P52 for example).
Mar
19
comment Historically have scholars always believed the NT was written in other than Greek?
I am aware of only a few western scholars who doubt the NT being originally in Greek. Even those typically limit the possibility to a book or two being in something else. (In the east, there are more.) Can you provide some source for your statement that the majority believe it was not written in Greek?
Feb
25
comment What do we know about Paul's family?
A Rabbinic citation for men to be married by 20 is Babylonian Talmud Kiddushin 29b and 30a sets the minimum age at 16 or 18 at the latest. My summary doesn't have the phrase "cursed be his bones" there or I would edit it in. Mine has "God is angry at him."
Feb
24
comment Is El Gibbor in Isaiah 9 refer means the child is divine?
No. IIRC, it was added the same time as the vowel points.
Feb
19
comment Why is Elohim translated as God rather than gods?
Another thing to consider is that Hebrew word order in a sentence is different than English (so is Greek, but that's another topic). Would that need to be preserved also? That leads to ambiguity in English BUT (and this is important) not in Hebrew. Hebrew grammar tells us things that English does through word order. Hebrew moves words around in the sentence for emphasis. That's not how English works, though, so we put them in English order. The goal of translation is to put the source document into the destination language. That requires more than wooden literalness.
Feb
19
comment Is there bible translation that is more literal than Young Literal Translation
No. You're forcing Young's Literal to be more wooden than even he is trying to be. You go beyond reason to say there are multiple Jehovahs while all the Hebrew is saying is that Jehovah (the one and only) is speaking to Hagar. That very verse shows that Elohim is YHWH is El Roi. YHWH is a proper name. There aren't multiple of them who need to be distinguished.
Feb
18
comment Why is Elohim translated as God rather than gods?
>"Shouldn't the translation preserve the grammatical error?" It's not an error. It's the way Hebrew works. To translate it the way you propose would be a failing. Would this also apply to verbs? Biblical Hebrew verbs don't have tense in the way that English verbs do. How would that be shown?
Feb
18
comment Why is Elohim translated as God rather than gods?
And the Hebrew for "water" is also in the plural but translated as singular. My Hebrew I prof used to make a joke about the Hebrew for "face" not being in the singular when referring to that of a person. He said, "So according to the Bible, all people are two faced."
Feb
17
comment Was there an astronomical origin of the Star of Bethlehem in Matthew 2?
Related: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/12196/…. The event here happened in the right time period.
Feb
12
comment What is an “anachronism” in Biblical Hermeneutics?
@Davïd I'd still go with Heide's date. The scholars in the column only checked a few sites to make their determination. Heide used many sources and sites.
Feb
11
comment When did Joseph, Jesus's father, die?
The reference to "son of Joseph" says nothing either way about Joseph being alive or dead. "Son of" was the common identifier and often used well after the father was dead to distinguish between those with the same personal name. For instance, Joseph ben Matityahu and Simeon ben Gamliel are both referred to that way. ('Ben' meaning 'son of.'