Reputation
14,779
Next tag badge:
103/100 score
16/20 answers
Badges
6 45 85
Newest
 Nice Answer
Impact
~571k people reached

Oct
14
reviewed Leave Open What view of drug use today would be deemed as sorcery/pharmakiea and fleshly by Paul in Galatians 5:20, when he lists the word?
Oct
14
reviewed Leave Open What are the similarities and differences between the Genesis creation account and other creation stories of the time
Oct
13
reviewed Reviewed Why does the YLT render “thunder” as “voices” in Exodus 20:18?
Oct
12
comment Texts in second temple Judaism using “one like a son of man” as in Daniel 7 to refer to angel
@Onlyheisgood. "son of man" is a term commonly used in the 2nd Temple Period Judiasm to refer to the Messiah. As seen from the uses, the Son of Man is more than a human being. He is divine. The term "son of man" in Num 23 is from Early Hebraic thinking (not 2nd Temple Judiasm). As used then (Early Hebraic), it was a poetic/literary way of saying "human being." David uses it the same way. However, the term shifted in time to refer specifically to first a certain prophet who spoke of the end of days (Ezekiel) and then the Messiah in the Intertestamental Period.
Oct
10
accepted Are there differences in how the Spirit empowers people?
Oct
9
reviewed No Action Needed What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
Oct
9
reviewed Reviewed In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51?
Oct
9
comment In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51?
Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics. We're a bit different from other sites. Could you flesh this answer out more and add some sources, please?
Oct
7
awarded  Custodian
Oct
7
reviewed Excellent What does John 20:31 tell us about the intended audience of John’s gospel?
Oct
7
reviewed Excellent Psalm 23:6 correct translation
Oct
7
comment What are “works of the law”?
However, one who has faith must not take their liberty in Christ as an excuse to sin. God forbid that we should sin that grace abound! And "taken in trespass" does not mean "feels the need to use the Law to come to peace." It means falls into sin, i.e. disobeys the Law.
Oct
7
comment What are “works of the law”?
-1 because this draws an unneeded distinction between law and faith. The two work together (see James 1:1 through 5:20). Paul also speaks highly of the Law and follows it. While he refuses Titus to be circumcised, he insists that Timothy be (Acts 16:3). This is because Titus was a gentile while Timothy was an uncircumcised Jew whom other Jews would consider an apostate. Paul, along with the Jerusalem Council, refused to make circumcision a requirement for salvation, but they recognized that the Law did good things in people. One who follows the Law in faith will not do those things.
Oct
6
reviewed Reviewed Who is the “man of lawlessness” in 2 Thess 2?
Oct
6
reviewed Reviewed What is the distinction between symbolic and apocalyptic interpretations of Ezekiel's temple vision?
Oct
6
reviewed No Action Needed “Until they see the kingdom of God” in Luke 9:27 and parallels
Oct
6
reviewed Reviewed Why does Noah curse Canaan?
Oct
6
reviewed Reviewed Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
Oct
5
awarded  Famous Question
Oct
3
reviewed Leave Open What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?