Reputation
14,973
Next tag badge:
106/100 score
17/20 answers
Badges
6 46 88
Impact
~598k people reached

Oct
16
reviewed Leave Open Which Greek NT passage has proven to have the most variant readings?
Oct
16
reviewed Reviewed The Healing at the Pool in John 5:1-14
Oct
16
reviewed No Action Needed Did Jeremiah complain about corrupt torah in Jeremiah 8:8?
Oct
16
reviewed No Action Needed Why did Jesus say “Get behind me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to me…” towards Peter?
Oct
16
answered Did Jeremiah complain about corrupt torah in Jeremiah 8:8?
Oct
15
revised Why was crocodile (תנין) from Exodus 7:10 translated as snake or serpent?
added 114 characters in body
Oct
15
answered Why was crocodile (תנין) from Exodus 7:10 translated as snake or serpent?
Oct
14
comment What are the arguments used by literal interpreters of Ezekiel's temple (Ezek. 40-48)?
Yeah, this is a good question--focused on a text and one particular hermeneutic for it.
Oct
14
reviewed Leave Open What are the arguments used by literal interpreters of Ezekiel's temple (Ezek. 40-48)?
Oct
14
reviewed Leave Open What view of drug use today would be deemed as sorcery/pharmakiea and fleshly by Paul in Galatians 5:20, when he lists the word?
Oct
14
reviewed Leave Open What are the similarities and differences between the Genesis creation account and other creation stories of the time
Oct
13
reviewed Reviewed Why does the YLT render “thunder” as “voices” in Exodus 20:18?
Oct
12
comment Texts in second temple Judaism using “one like a son of man” as in Daniel 7 to refer to angel
@Onlyheisgood. "son of man" is a term commonly used in the 2nd Temple Period Judiasm to refer to the Messiah. As seen from the uses, the Son of Man is more than a human being. He is divine. The term "son of man" in Num 23 is from Early Hebraic thinking (not 2nd Temple Judiasm). As used then (Early Hebraic), it was a poetic/literary way of saying "human being." David uses it the same way. However, the term shifted in time to refer specifically to first a certain prophet who spoke of the end of days (Ezekiel) and then the Messiah in the Intertestamental Period.
Oct
10
accepted Are there differences in how the Spirit empowers people?
Oct
9
reviewed No Action Needed What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
Oct
9
reviewed Reviewed In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51?
Oct
9
comment In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51?
Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics. We're a bit different from other sites. Could you flesh this answer out more and add some sources, please?
Oct
7
awarded  Custodian
Oct
7
reviewed Excellent What does John 20:31 tell us about the intended audience of John’s gospel?
Oct
7
reviewed Excellent Psalm 23:6 correct translation